Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Just a question -- will all these exercises have the Spanish accent from Spain? I am hoping to near Latin American
In this quiz question (Elia no va a empezar el curso este año ________ va a tener un año sabático.) it seems to me that "pero" works just as well as "sino que". It doesn't seem to be a clear distinction between pero and sino que - it seems they both can be right. In one sense, you are adding a new idea/action of taking a sabbatical & should use pero, or you can think of the sabbatical as a substitution for beginning classes and use sino que. Why is sino que "correct" and pero ïncorrect"?
I'm with the rest of the people below. How can a question be interpreted as a exclamation? If it has the ?? around it, it signifies a question. It shouldn't matter what language you're using. A question is a question. So how does this magically convert into a exclamation? Can someone from kwiziq please answer because it's been asked over and over for the past year. Thank you
hi team,
I have some questions.
´Es muy agradable porque la vuelta al frío es mucho más amena de esta manera.´ why is mucho being used instead of muy?
I thought that it will be used to describe ´amena´, an adjective.
´que ocurre a finales de septiembre ´. why is finales the plural being used and without articles ´los´?
Thanks in advance.
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Hi, just want to let you know that this is the third mini-quiz that I've come across on my recommended list that has no questions. It just says "1 of 0".
"Acordaos que estamos fríendo esta tortilla a fuego lento."
Shouldn't it be "de que"?
In Thea question in the quiz, they give you the hint to conjugate hacer in el conditional simple which I did but my answer was marked as wrong. Can you explain why please? Thank you
In the first and the last but one example, could it instead be "no más de unas monedas", "no más de unos minutos", and if so, would it have a different meaning/connotation?
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