Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello,

I'm interested in the flexibility when there are multiple objets. The first example on the page is: A mí me diste muy poco dinero pero a ella le diste mucho.

Would 

A mí me diste muy poco dinero pero a ella mucho.

also be correct?

And what about: 

A mí me diste muy poco dinero pero a ella diste mucho.

?
thanks!

i am having a hard time knowing which preposition to use ("of the", "by the", "from the", "to the", et al) 

Not to mention which indirect object pronoun goes before the other (She gives it to him in the morning "Ella se lo da por la mañana")?

Hello Lawless Spanish,

I JUST found your excellent web site. I've been using various means to learn Spanish over the last 1.5 years, but your site seems to be the best resource so far. I'm still at A1 however.

Here's a thought that I'd be interested to know your opinion on. Often while reading an English interpretation of a Spanish phrase or sentence, I think I would like to have the more literal translation rather than the Spanish being re-worded in order to be a grammatical English sentence. Because I don't care about English grammar or want my English reinforced when I'm trying to understand how a Spanish speaker constructs their thoughts linguistically. Do you know what I mean?

Take the example from the first exercise I happened to land on,  Corro para estar en forma. It would be helpful to see a more literal translation, then I get a better idea of the words and structure a Spanish speaker uses. In the example, "estar en forma" is re-interpreted as "to keep fit." That is quite a departure from the literal. I think an English speaker is quite capable of recognizing a more literal translation "to be in form" because it is identical to the common English phrase "to be in shape." So while I know authors are trying to be helpful with English re-interpretations, I often feel cheated out of knowing a more literal construction and wording, and in the process authors may even be making less-accurate interpretations (such as "to keep fit" instead of the better "to be in shape."). What do you think?  

since this website only teaches spanish grammar to C1 does that mean ima have to find another website to teach me the rest of the grammar to C2? im very confused please help me.

When do we not use the articles like "en casa" instead of "en la casa"?

Just want to remind people that we use the infinitive when we have the same subject in both clauses.

Thank you so much for this detailed explanation Inma. It's greatly appreciated. I hope it's fair to say that I wish that  Leísmo/Loísmo/Laísmo didn't exist 🙄... another thing for my old brain to try to remember. ;))

This example is wrong, no? Quizá Miguel no aprobara.

This is in the imperfect subjunctive. Shouldn't it be apruebe?

"dentro del seno de una familia catolica, (etc)" = within the bosom of a catholic family. Why pare down the literary parts to just the basic meaning of "to a catholic family (etc)"? The "dentro del seno" seems to indicate that he was born into a loving, caring family (O.K. plus wealthy and traditional!). But when we read Cervantes and Shakespeare aren't those literary embellishments what made them classics?