Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
“Usted tendría que devolver los
artículos en la caja. (You would have
to return the articles at the till.)
HINT: Conjugate "tener que"' in El
Condicional Simple.
“No entiendo “the till.” In the US would be the cashier, I think. In Latin America, perhaps “el cajero.” “The till” has various contations in the US and some border on the negative. From Miriam-Webster:
till
noun (1)
\ ˈtil \Definition of till (Entry 4 of 5)
1a: a money drawer in a store or bankalso : CASH REGISTERb: a box, drawer, or tray in a receptacle (such as a cabinet or chest) used especially for valuables2a: the money contained in a tillb: a supply of especially ready moneyLike ‘como uvas’ , can we say ‘yo como uvas’ too, and why is there no ‘I’?
When the noun ends in a consonant or the vowel -e we tend to keep the whole word and add -cillo, -cilla, -cillos, -cillas. Hola, the lesson on the suffix cito etc says it applies to words ending in e. So which would be the correct suffix to add to Quijote? cito or cillo? Muchas gracias, Shirley.
Desde dos años vs hace dos años, which one to use over the other ? Both means the same doesn’t it ? How to answer the test correctly then ?
Does «media naranja» (soulmate) literally mean "orange sock"? How did this term for "soulmate" develop in Spanish culture?
What’s the reasoning for ruling out el pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo?
de tantas horas que estuviera trabajandoThe translation of:
Voy a mandar hacer un vestido
is given as:
I am having a dress made
I would have thought it to be:
I'm going to have a dress made
Why is it not the latter?
Thanks.
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Greetings, I have a question about the sentence “Mientras, los otros niños hacíamos una fila…” If the subject is los otros niños, should the verbs in this sentence be conjugated in the third person plural? Hacían? Entraban? There is no indication that the narrator is including himself in the group of kids waiting in line. Please help me understand. Thank you.
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