Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Suggestion, along with having vocabulary words presented before each exercise also have the lessons that one should have done/review prior to doing the exercise. For example, somehow I did missed the lesson on conjugating in the near future lesson, and I was lost with those sentences. Thanks.
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Hello,
I'm interested in the flexibility when there are multiple objets. The first example on the page is: A mí me diste muy poco dinero pero a ella le diste mucho.
Would
A mí me diste muy poco dinero pero a ella mucho.
also be correct?
And what about:
A mí me diste muy poco dinero pero a ella diste mucho.
?
thanks!
I've used "le" for men AND women (e.g. "Un gusto conocerle!", "Pásenle" etc.), but the article says it's only for men. This is Spanish spoken in a Mexican-American household, so I don't know how that affects things-- could be improper Spanish, but I thought I'd check because I hear it often.
Habría valido la pena mostrar imágenes de los cuadros para reforzar las emociones que supuestamente suscitan.
Obviously Hacer does not mean to walk and we already know that the Camino is a walking event. Wouldn’t it be better to just go ahead and translate as “doing the Camino?” Perfectly acceptable English and a more accurate translation, it would seem.
Hoy invito yo, así que escoged ________ os guste.
This sentence has subjunctive so am i right to say it means = choose whatever you like?
if it means = whatever you like, then why is cual or cuales wrong for this sentence?
thanks
Why is it "sigue" and not "siguen" in the following sentence? - Además, un 62 % de los latinoamericanos sigue una dieta especial...
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