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6,019 questions • 9,836 answers • 1,015,134 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,019 questions • 9,836 answers • 1,015,134 learners
For the phrase: "... accompanied by rich hot chocolate" > "[una deliciosa rosca] acompañada de un rico chocolate caliente" -
- the hint which you gave us should read: "the adjective 'rich' is reinforcing 'hot chocolate' " ... (Instead, you put: "the adj. 'hot' is reinforcing 'hot chocolate' ").
Habría valido la pena mostrar imágenes de los cuadros para reforzar las emociones que supuestamente suscitan.
why is tenido sometimes with an accent on the nand sometimes without. The correct answer for this question was with an accent wheras another question using tenido was without. My collins dictionary says without.
Hola,
The last sentence says "Los pájaron volaban sobre nosotras.", shouldn't it be pájaros?
Ok, I meant to ask earlier, but when I heard this same phrase for the third or fourth time while watching "¿Quién mató a Sara?" it just really started bugging me: this seems to be a great example of the impersonal ellos form (the whole premise is that he thinks she was killed but doesn't actually know who did it!) but I can't understand why that "la" is there. "La mataron" or "A Sara Mataron" I get, but how isn't it redundant to have both...?
If anyone knows what's going on here, thanks in advance for any insight you're willing to offer! (but no spoilers please!) 😂
Creo que los dos son correctos. Leo online que "a" se usa más en América y "en" es más común en España. Pero en "Love Story" (ejercicio de escribir - A1), se dice "entrar al bar" no es correcto! Solo "entrar en el bar". Porque?
Hi, how can i know when to use an indefinite article? I know to not use it in front of a profession. Thank you,Shirley.
Thank you Silvia,
You write that "for" in
"she has made many sacrifices for her children"
implies a cause / an originating reason.
If so, why "for" in
"she has made many books for her children"
does not imply a cause?
Also, is the following ungrammatical:
"Ha hecho muchos sacrificios para sus hijos."
In this example we have the same subject in both clauses, but still use the subjunctive:
Te pondrías muy triste si me vieras sufrir.
Is this because "si" is used? Would it still use the subjunctive if we use "que" in the above sentence?
Thanks.
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