Spanish language Q&A Forum

I am getting thoroughly confused. What is the difference between the two ?

I know the preterite and the present perfect. Never heard of preterito indefinido

Yumm . . . plus café Americano for an international breakfast.

But what is the derivation of the word "blandurrias"? Might: "empapadas pero no blandurrias" be "mojadas pero no empapadas"?

I understood from the lesson on 'Whoever / all those who' that todos aquellos was always followed by a subjunctive.

...una muñeca querida en los corazones de todos aquellos que han tenido el placer de disfrutar...  shouldn't this be hayan tenido el placer?

Gracias

Hello,

I was confused as to why it's (y voy a salir de casa temprano) and not (y voy a salir la casa temprano)

Could you say 'poner una chaquetta' instead of 'llevar una chaquetta'?

I would've said estos without it, but it made me second guess myself and put este. What is this hint trying to say? I'm not understanding how I misinterpreted it. 

"I couldn't find her so I left" - I put encontre (with an accent) because it was a completed action. I thought that encontraba would be the past continuous. Am I misunderstanding something?

Here is another example of the nonuse of an article in Spanish that I do not understand.  "The city was an environmental model" is "la ciudad fue modelo ambiental" not "un modelo ambiental".  I do not understand why there is no indefinite article like there is in English.

y bellos paisajes que inspiraron

Durante su vida, vivió en distintos países

Debido a su sobresaliente carrera literaria

Here in Mexico it is common to say “cervesa bien fría”.  (Just to reinforce what you Mentioned about Latin American usage).