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6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,446 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,446 learners
It is probably worth remembering that Spanish has a specific rule stating that "de" must always appear between "un millón" [or "millones"] and the noun which it is qualifying. Is this mentioned in one of your lessons? ... Does the same rule also apply to "billón"?
For "I will get my nails shaped" we were told to "use the construction for 'to have something done'" - so [following your guidelines for sentences of that type] I put: "me daré forma a las uñas", but this was incorrect. However, "*le* daré forma a las uñas" was among the options allowed?
For the phrase: "... accompanied by rich hot chocolate" > "[una deliciosa rosca] acompañada de un rico chocolate caliente" -
- the hint which you gave us should read: "the adjective 'rich' is reinforcing 'hot chocolate' " ... (Instead, you put: "the adj. 'hot' is reinforcing 'hot chocolate' ").
I understand that no articles are used in negatives
e.g no hay tienda
Therefore, I am asking whether you would also drop the article in this sense?
e.g hay el de rojo--> no hay de rojo?
Why does ‘a ti’ carry an accent in your examples ? I understand “a mí’ does it to differentiate itself from ‘mi’ but there is no reason for ‘ti’ to carry an accent.
Perhaps it would be helpful with these various stem changing verb lessons to explain more clearly that the vowel changes only affect the vowels when they are in syllables that are stressed, rather than giving the impression that the nosotros/as and vosotras/os forms are just arbitrary exceptions. I think that grasping that makes it a lot easier to internalize the pattern than just trying to memorize exceptions without understanding why they work that way.
Thank you for clarifying that this expression functions similar to the verb gustar. I believe that the gustar structure is sometimes used with 3rd person plural, such as "Me gustan las películas." Is there ever a time that "dar a alguien por algo" is used with 3rd person plural when followed by a plural noun? For example, if I wanted to say "Now that my friend has retired, she has taken up new hobbies," would I still say, "Ahora que mi amiga se ha jubilado, le ha dado pasatiempos nuevos"? Thank you!
there is another chapter where "Having done something" with the action as subject or direct object of a sentence using El Infinitivo Compuesto (= haber + participle)
How does it differ from using infinitive?
Fumar es malo para la salud
Haber fumado es malo para la salud
if I were to guess, I am guessing that using el infinitive compuesto is that, the action was indeed being carried out where as using infinitive is just a general statement. the person we are warning regarding smoking is bad, did not smoke.
Whereas if the person indeed smoke, we will say haber fumado es malo para la salud
Sorry, re my previous question i meant Pongamonos, not pongonos.
Shirley.
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