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5,837 questions • 9,552 answers • 955,719 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,837 questions • 9,552 answers • 955,719 learners
I think trifle is British English. Can someone tell me what it means in American English?
I think the conjugation of servir in this lesson seems to be incorrect, it leaves off the s in all forms, except in the nosotros form i where it leaves off the root ser.
Hola,
Me confunde mucho el uso de ¨ser¨y ¨estar¨ en la voz pasiva. ¿Podrían ustedes aclararlo?
Gracias.
Why is creer not the right verb for "she thought that" . Difference between pensar and creer please?
You say "Ustedes" which is plural but you translate it as "you" in the singular in the answer, so the learner does not know which answer to choose.
Hello, I'm slightly confused with the following:
Debe de haber llovido esta noche, porque los coches están mojados.As you can see from the previous examples, when we use deber with this nuance of assumption/wondering, we can optionally use the preposition "de" after deber.
So you are saying that "de" is truly optional and has the same meaning whether "de" is used or not?
Thank you,
Dave
In the quiz the answer was con Uds but I chose what I knew wasn't the right answer ustedes because the Uds would be capitalized in the middle of the sentence. I'm pretty sure that's not correct either. Anyway, I don't think we need these kind of trick questions. My thought is that is a poorly created test question. That said, I'm interested if one ever capitalizes Uds in the middle of a sentence or if the capitalized Uds is standard for the abbreviation of usted and I am wrong here.
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
under the dictation, a part of the sentence says
Y nos invitaban a todos a una ceremonia y una fiesta, en una estación de esquí la Navidad próxima.
i understand that nos invitaban = they invited us
nos invitaban a una fiesta = they invited us to a party
but what does a todos means?
ayudame por favor
muchas gracias
When do we know it its te or tu gusta is it just dependent on if it is a reflextive verb or not
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