Separated double object pronouns HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
Hola, the second last sentence says " Todo esto haría crecer nuestro negocio.". Can it be "Todo esto crecería nuestro negocio."? If it can, what would be the difference between these two expressions? Thank you.
The "this may be closer to latin amercian spanish" warning came up in this exercise, for a part of the text given as a hint!
"A las cuatro, tengo entrenamiento de fútbol."
Why does ‘a ti’ carry an accent in your examples ? I understand “a mí’ does it to differentiate itself from ‘mi’ but there is no reason for ‘ti’ to carry an accent.
Hi Inma,
Thanks a million this is really interesting and insightful to the use of Spanish. Saludos. John
HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
I don't want to quibble about details with native teachers but I was puzzled by the tip box at the bottom of this lesson saying "Remember that after poder(conjugated in any tense) you will always find an infinitive. "
I'm unsure what to make of this given that I have not always found an infinitive after poder. The example that immediately came to mind was "No puedo más." Which I stuck out in my mind precisely because I found it odd that "puedo" was NOT followed by another verb.
For "I will get my nails shaped" we were told to "use the construction for 'to have something done'" - so [following your guidelines for sentences of that type] I put: "me daré forma a las uñas", but this was incorrect. However, "*le* daré forma a las uñas" was among the options allowed?
Since both the Present Perfect "hemos podido viajar" and Preterite "pudimos viajar" are correct for this question (it is both limited to a set past time period and the speaker is obviously involved in the action), shouldn't the lesson explain that sometimes both options are acceptable?
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