once again gustar!Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
I am getting thoroughly confused. What is the difference between the two ?
I know the preterite and the present perfect. Never heard of preterito indefinido
Now everywhere I look online it suggests that this should only say 'lo dejé' and not 'me lo dejé'. Why would they add 'me'? It doesn't feel like it needs it, as the 'I forgot' bit is understood by dejé, and the 'it' by lo. It isn't reflexive I don't think.
Thanks!
Why would you say soy un cantautor? I thought you were not supposed to use an indefinite article when saying what occupation you have?
Now I know that when I listen to native speakers or have to read their WhatsApp messages, I shouldn't assume that their lo / le / las usage is correct.
Hello,
Just to note that in one of the examples above, the English translation is not correct:
Él no te habría querido tanto como yo.He would not have loved you as much as me.While some (many!) English-speakers may say this (incorrectly), the actual meaning of what they are saying is: "He would not have loved you as much as (he loved/s) me."
The correct translation of the Spanish sentence would be:
"He would not have loved you as much as I do/did."
Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
In the quiz question with the answers "We have to be patient with our teenage children.
We need to be patient with our teenage children."
As a native English speaker, I don't understand the distinction being made between these two options. They seem synonymous.
Nope. No real instruction can convey with clarity how to use the different past tenses in Spanish. This is just another attempt here to try and make it "clear." it is not.
Spanish fluency was a goal of mine, but really not so much any longer. Basically, because no one can really "instruct" on how to learn the language. The only way to learn it is to revert to "infancy" and just hear it spoken. So, move to a Spanish-speaking country or region and pick up what you can. Most disheartening thing I have ever attempted to do is learning Spanish.
I think trifle is British English. Can someone tell me what it means in American English?
I think the conjugation of servir in this lesson seems to be incorrect, it leaves off the s in all forms, except in the nosotros form i where it leaves off the root ser.
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