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5,770 questions • 9,423 answers • 938,546 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,770 questions • 9,423 answers • 938,546 learners
It is ok to respond back with "Y tu tambien" when someone says to me in Spanish "Que tengas un buen fin de semana."
really enjoyable seeing the action described so clearly
Hello,
I noticed that oler seems to be sometimes built with the preposition "a" before introducing the smell of something, such as in:
Tú hueles a perfume fresco.
or
Las galletas huelen a chocolate.
So I thought it was used in the meaning of "smelling like something", when the subject themselves smells like something. But then I also noticed it in ¿Vosotros oléis a pollo quemado?".
So is the "a" used rather when the smell has no article? What is the rule (if any)?
Thank you!
In my experience, and according to my dictionary, reflection (in a mirror or an observation) is el reflejo, unless it is the action in physics of something bouncing of something else
Why the "a" in "se llama a Honduras la Republica" . . . ?
with NOUNs the mas or menos is before the noun.
with verbs They are after the conjugated verb.
when used as a pronoun is after the noun it talking about. Has words in front of it
and their might be a name for those sorts of words.
so the question are these kinda "rules"
A story I had a teacher and first words the son said was "mas" talking about food.
In the lesson on 'Para mí que' it gives its use as - 'we simply express having a feeling, an inkling about something happening'
The English text here says 'What amazes me...' Surely that's stronger than an inkling!
It also says 'esta sigue siendo un medio de lo más popular' Why isn't it 'este' as it refers to the masculine word medio
Gracias
Thank you for clarifying that this expression functions similar to the verb gustar. I believe that the gustar structure is sometimes used with 3rd person plural, such as "Me gustan las películas." Is there ever a time that "dar a alguien por algo" is used with 3rd person plural when followed by a plural noun? For example, if I wanted to say "Now that my friend has retired, she has taken up new hobbies," would I still say, "Ahora que mi amiga se ha jubilado, le ha dado pasatiempos nuevos"? Thank you!
It is probably worth remembering that Spanish has a specific rule stating that "de" must always appear between "un millón" [or "millones"] and the noun which it is qualifying. Is this mentioned in one of your lessons? ... Does the same rule also apply to "billón"?
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