Spanish language Q&A Forum

I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?"  (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone  "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."

Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?

I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...

We want exercises with answers would be very useful 

I know ser means ‘to be’ in terms of characteristics and estar means ‘to be’ in temporary sense or in terms of location but why does this exercise use estar for ‘to be clear’ and ‘is cloudy’ but ser for ‘can be unstable’?

I'm confused by the title of this article: "personal "a" verbs". Isn't the issue whether the direct object is a person or not, rather than the verb used? In addition to the verbs mentioned, isn't the same true of all the verbs on https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/learn/theme/830919 as well as necesitar, golpear, ... indeed any transitive verb? 

In the sentence below, wouldn't be correct to use 'tenemos' instead of 'tengamos'? Muchas gracias!

. Por otro lado, es genial que a los dos nos encanten la música y el deporte y que tengamos muchos amigos en común.

Isn't it the same topic as "Gerundio"?

Hola,
Me confunde mucho el uso de ¨ser¨y ¨estar¨ en la voz pasiva. ¿Podrían ustedes aclararlo?
Gracias.

¿Podría ser correcto usar ambas verbos en el pretérito indefinido para decir algo diferente? 

Por ejemplo "cuando vine a casa, ví el nuevo coche" en vez de "cuando venía a casa, ví el nuevo coche", para decir que lo ví inmediatamente después de que hubiera llegado (una acción cumplida, no interrumpida). 

Eso me parecería lógico y algo similar sí se puede usar en inglés, pero  ¿tiene sentido o es correcto en Español, o hay una forma distinta de decir algo así?

Espero que lo haya explicado suficiente claro... Muchas gracias.

Why does the word "llamáis" (or a lot of other verb forms for vosotros) have an accent on the penultimate syllable even though it ends with the letter s?