A much appreciated explanation...

Question

Thank you so much for this detailed explanation Inma. It's greatly appreciated. I hope it's fair to say that I wish that  Leísmo/Loísmo/Laísmo didn't exist 🙄... another thing for my old brain to try to remember. ;))

steven swenson · Answer

I am reading in an advanced Spanish Grammar book and it gives the following examples as correct:

1.) Les quiero ver. (I want to see them)

2.) Les voy a invitar. (I am going to invite them).

But if I am understanding correctly, in both cases, "les" is being used as a direct object pronoun in both cases and is incorrect gramatically. If the direct object in either case were "he" instead of "them", then either "le" or "lo" could be used. For any other 3rd person direct object (including a masculine non human object (it), le/les would be gramatically incorrect. Am I understanding this correctly, or is there some nuance that I am missing?