Spanish language Q&A Forum

I don't understand why Indefinido is used in the example; "Nos gustamos desde el primer momento." It has a definite starting point, but the sentence implies a continuing action. In this case could Imperfecto also be used correctly?

I am a bit confused here. Below are two responses which I got wrong. In both cases the "hint" is that it is a "future idea". So why should one of them be indicative and the other subjunctive? "Even if you don't want to" I put in the subjunctive because there seemed to be a bit of doubt, and that was marked wrong. "Even if you do extra hours" I put in the indicative because it seemed that that was definitely going to happen.

I think this is a very complicated and nuanced piece of grammar so I would appreciate some help, thank you.

PS I tried to include a screenshot of my answers but the system wouldn't let me.

 I just wanted to add that it seems like a similar thing IS actually done in colloquial English in certain rare cases and the form and nuance is very similar--eg "they say it's tricky to learn" where the "they" is someone unspecified or people in general and not particularly relevant. (In more formal English, other ways of expressing the idea would sound less "colloquial", but it would  sound very normal in conversation.) But what I'm seeing is that in Spanish this has much broader use, and is quite natural in many cases where in english you'd have to use a passive construction (or another pronoun instead to keep the impersonal sense)--eg, "He was robbed," or maybe "someone robbed him", but not "they robbed him" because in English that implies subjects already mentioned or known and wouldn't sound impersonal (at least, not in any dialect I've encountered). Yet helpfully, the Spanish form isn't TOTALLY alien to an English speaker, just a lot more freely used. Gee, isn't language fun?! 🙃 

…but I’ve just realised why I get confused about when to use the subjunctive after ‘no sé que…’ (‘I don’t know that…’) or ‘no sé qué…’ (‘I don’t know which/what…’), now I realise that I should use the subjunctive in the first case and not in the second. Thank you! 

I understand that when "tal vez" and "quizas" are used, they can be followed by either subjunctive or indicative mood.  But "a lo mejor" only accepts indicative mood.  And, since "tal vez", "quizas", and "a lo mejor" can all be translated as "maybe" in English, this creates some confusion for English speakers.  My question is this: even though they are all tranlated as "maybe" in english, does the phrase "a lo mejor" convey less doubt/uncertainty than "tal vez/quizas" in spanish?

I saw it in spain and "IT WAS WONDERFUL". Shouldn't it be in Imperfecto because we are kind of giving description here of how it was. But it was marked wrong. It was "fue marvillosos" . Please answer???  

The test question "I always wanted to be a dentist." I answered "he querido" but correct answer was "quise" 

Isn't that a past action that continues into the present? - perfecto?

Anyway this particular topic seems to be all over the place. The goal of these questions shouldn't be trickery IMHO. We're learning to speak a language - not to be a textbook scholar - or at least that's my goal. I asked one of the many Spanish speakers where I work what they thought and they said "it could be either and I'd understand you."