Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why do some of the verbs get tildas?

se lo quiero comprar becomes comprárselo

and 

se lo estamos decorando becomes estamos decorándoselo

Hola Inma, busco un listo de verbs de moviemiento.  He buscado el internet.  ¿Existe un listo de estos verbos?  Gracias y que tengas una buena tarde.

Ken

…but I’ve just realised why I get confused about when to use the subjunctive after ‘no sé que…’ (‘I don’t know that…’) or ‘no sé qué…’ (‘I don’t know which/what…’), now I realise that I should use the subjunctive in the first case and not in the second. Thank you! 

In this quiz question you guys translate "having always lived" with the past tense "vivió." This is incorrect. Having always lived would be siempre haber vivido. If that's not what you intended then the English translation should not be "having always lived." Either way the sentence contruction is awkward at best in English. 

?Son iguales, no?:

Hace anos iba a esa clase

Hace anos solia ir a esa clase.

Is there a rule for determining the Spanish ending for someone that does a profession? For example, a climber is escalador, and a traveler is viajero. Why is one ending in -or and the other -ero? 

Why is it 'les' when referring to his family?

Below is the text from the lesson explaining your options with "por si/por si acaso". All of the examples use the imperfect subjective, but the fact that was the only option wasn't really clear until I read through the comments/questions.

From the Lesson: They introduce a subordinate clause expressing a condition. They can be followed by the subjunctive or the indicative.