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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,930 questions • 9,700 answers • 983,464 learners
I just wanted to add that it seems like a similar thing IS actually done in colloquial English in certain rare cases and the form and nuance is very similar--eg "they say it's tricky to learn" where the "they" is someone unspecified or people in general and not particularly relevant. (In more formal English, other ways of expressing the idea would sound less "colloquial", but it would sound very normal in conversation.) But what I'm seeing is that in Spanish this has much broader use, and is quite natural in many cases where in english you'd have to use a passive construction (or another pronoun instead to keep the impersonal sense)--eg, "He was robbed," or maybe "someone robbed him", but not "they robbed him" because in English that implies subjects already mentioned or known and wouldn't sound impersonal (at least, not in any dialect I've encountered). Yet helpfully, the Spanish form isn't TOTALLY alien to an English speaker, just a lot more freely used. Gee, isn't language fun?! 🙃
"Sería tan romántico que mas las diera" is a B2 construction.
Hi, the Spanish word for “for” is missing. Thanks, Shirley.
Hola,
Thank you for this lesson. I understand that ningun is used before a noun:
"No tengo ningun dinero para ir de compras hoy.";
"Ningun estudiante hizo la tarea."
My confusion is when concerning when to use "ningun" vs "ninguno"?
Saludos
Nope. No real instruction can convey with clarity how to use the different past tenses in Spanish. This is just another attempt here to try and make it "clear." it is not.
Spanish fluency was a goal of mine, but really not so much any longer. Basically, because no one can really "instruct" on how to learn the language. The only way to learn it is to revert to "infancy" and just hear it spoken. So, move to a Spanish-speaking country or region and pick up what you can. Most disheartening thing I have ever attempted to do is learning Spanish.
Since both the Present Perfect "hemos podido viajar" and Preterite "pudimos viajar" are correct for this question (it is both limited to a set past time period and the speaker is obviously involved in the action), shouldn't the lesson explain that sometimes both options are acceptable?
with NOUNs the mas or menos is before the noun.
with verbs They are after the conjugated verb.
when used as a pronoun is after the noun it talking about. Has words in front of it
and their might be a name for those sorts of words.
so the question are these kinda "rules"
A story I had a teacher and first words the son said was "mas" talking about food.
Hola! Gracias por ese punto de gramática. Tenía una pregunta sobre ese tema. Porque decimos ''vete'' (go away!) en lugar de ''vate''? Porque la tercera persona del singular al presente del indicativo es ''él/ella va''. Porque utilizamos el presente del subjuntivo aquí? Gracias :-)
Hi!! I would like to ask a question. So I'm doing a presentation in Spanish and i want to use the present perfect subjunctive in the last sentence. I want to say "I hope you enjoyed my presentation". The dictionary says that it's "espero que les haya gustado mi precentación", but isn't "haya" the verb form for "usted" and not "ustedes"? Several people are going to listen to me, so I want to address them all. What do I say? Is it "espero que les hayán gustado mi precentación" or "espero que les hayáis gustado mi precentación", or is it the sentence I wrote earlier?
Thank you in advance!!
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