Spanish language Q&A Forum

Re my question below is les incorrect because ver is intransitive? 

When SE is used in a sentance, how kan we know if it referes to a "he" or a "she"??

Examples taken from your grammer:

Prepara la carne para el = Preparasela = Prepare it (the meat) for HIM

Firmen el documento para ella = Firmenselo = Sign it (the document) for HER

Hola…..¿por qué se usa el imperfecto de subjuntivo con una oración que empiece con “No sabía que_________”.  No entiendo el “trigger” en este caso.

Since The main differences between ser and estar include that ser is used for permanent qualities, like your name, your place of origin, and your physical appearance, while estar is used to talk about temporary situations, such as how you’re feeling right now or your location.

So why is SER used in this sentence:  Tú eras muy bueno.  - the person that you are talking to is not always good so it is not a permant state.

Ditto in the following sentence.  You are not always rich so why use SER in the following:  Vosotros erais ricos.

The difference between an "event still to happen" and one that "will happen" can be determined only by the ability to predict the future. It is not a grammatical issue. So neither the indicative nor subjunctive choice is grammatically incorrect. It's a semantic difference, not a grammatical one. I've seen you make very different choices -- different from what I thought was meant. 

I know this keeps coming up, but in the examples we see: “las llaves de la casa”, and “la reserva de hotel”. Both these expressions follow the structure of NOUN + DE + NOUN. Why do we only use “la” for the first one?