Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,118 questions • 10,018 answers • 1,054,454 learners
I'll be right with you...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,118 questions • 10,018 answers • 1,054,454 learners
Why can I say un hombre entusiasmado ( gender agrees) but have to say un hombre entusiasta ( adjective always feminine ) ?
Gracias
I don't understand why Indefinido is used in the example; "Nos gustamos desde el primer momento." It has a definite starting point, but the sentence implies a continuing action. In this case could Imperfecto also be used correctly?
I assume in the example above salir, the infinitive is not used with después because después is being used as adjective not as a proposition?
I know this lesson gives a short explanation about what this topic is but I feel like it does not do a good job of truly explaining the subject it just gives examples. So would you be able to explain to me how to actually talk about habits in the past?
is it not more common, due to the context to say "voy a preparar los documentos" vs" Mis documentos" in Castilian Spanish?
What is the problem with either Pónselos allí OR Se los pon allí ?? Both are grammatically correct yet it seems sometimes that these "tests" go out of their way to make responses more difficult an obcure than they should be.
I just wanted to add that it seems like a similar thing IS actually done in colloquial English in certain rare cases and the form and nuance is very similar--eg "they say it's tricky to learn" where the "they" is someone unspecified or people in general and not particularly relevant. (In more formal English, other ways of expressing the idea would sound less "colloquial", but it would sound very normal in conversation.) But what I'm seeing is that in Spanish this has much broader use, and is quite natural in many cases where in english you'd have to use a passive construction (or another pronoun instead to keep the impersonal sense)--eg, "He was robbed," or maybe "someone robbed him", but not "they robbed him" because in English that implies subjects already mentioned or known and wouldn't sound impersonal (at least, not in any dialect I've encountered). Yet helpfully, the Spanish form isn't TOTALLY alien to an English speaker, just a lot more freely used. Gee, isn't language fun?! 🙃
For the example:
De no llegar a tiempo perderíamos el vuelo.
If we didn't arrive on time we'd miss the flight.
I can only see four translations:(1) If we don't arrive on time we'll miss the flight. (or "we could miss")(2) If we hadn't arrived on time we would/could have missed the flight.
Could you please double-check your English translation? Thanks.
When SE is used in a sentance, how kan we know if it referes to a "he" or a "she"??
Examples taken from your grammer:
Prepara la carne para el = Preparasela = Prepare it (the meat) for HIM
Firmen el documento para ella = Firmenselo = Sign it (the document) for HER
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level