Change the personal pronoun to an Indirect object pronoun.Espanol I U5 Indirect Object Pronouns
Change the personal pronoun to an Indirect object pronoun.
Me – Te – Le – Nos – Les
1. Yo y Ella __________ 11. Jessie __________
2. Tú y El __________ 12. Ellos y yo _________
3. Ud. __________ 13. Ron __________
4. El Maestro __________ 14. Ustedes _______
5. Ella __________ 15. Yo y ellos __________
6. Nosotros __________ 16. La tia _________
7. Ellos y Ellas __________ 17. Las profesoras _________
8. Ustedes y yo __________ 18. Pamela y yo _________
9. Ellos __________ 19. El hermano __________
10. Rodolfo y Ud. __________ 20. Santiago __________
In the first two paragraphs it says "de" is followed by a noun, but the examples all appear to place "de" before an adjective with the noun preceding "de." Can you explain this conundrum? Thank you.
Espanol I U5 Indirect Object Pronouns
Change the personal pronoun to an Indirect object pronoun.
Me – Te – Le – Nos – Les
1. Yo y Ella __________ 11. Jessie __________
2. Tú y El __________ 12. Ellos y yo _________
3. Ud. __________ 13. Ron __________
4. El Maestro __________ 14. Ustedes _______
5. Ella __________ 15. Yo y ellos __________
6. Nosotros __________ 16. La tia _________
7. Ellos y Ellas __________ 17. Las profesoras _________
8. Ustedes y yo __________ 18. Pamela y yo _________
9. Ellos __________ 19. El hermano __________
10. Rodolfo y Ud. __________ 20. Santiago __________
The question did not specify to use the tú or usted form, and in a later question, it did specify "tú." So I typed "leyó", but was marked wrong. I had "leiste" until I saw "tú" specified later, so I changed it. Either both should be right or it should be specified, to reduce frustration. I can see if you were talking to a family member or close friend (in an obvious context), then it should be expected to be "tú." But this was quite ambiguous- you could have loaned a book to a friend or a colleague or boss.
The note says quedarse can be used as emphasis of end results. So does that mean ‘se queda inmóvil’ meaning he ended up motionless ? Or is this meaning of quedarse different ?
I have to comment again on English word choices. In the English interpretation of Yo hago la comida por las mañanas, wouldn't "I make" be more appropriate than "I prepare?" Because wouldn't "yo preparo" be the Spanish for "I prepare?"
Is it common to use hacer as "gave" in this question? Why not use diste (dar)?
¿Qué sobre "al final de cuentas"?
Hola, I’m confused about the English translation, which uses the noun make-up (maquillaje in Spanish). However the Spanish uses the verb se maquilla, which I thought means to put on make up (Because of all the makeup she puts on..). Muchas gracias, Shirley.
De lejos, habria es actual en inglais. pero me cuento que utilizo habre.
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