once again gustar!Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
I'm having the same problem. Suddenly my lessons include non-european Spanish. Help!
All the words are based on conserve rather than Conversar. Is this correct or am I missing something? Thank you very much!
Present tense
Subjunctiveyoconservo nosotrosconservamos yoconserve nosotrosconservemostúconservas vosotrosconserváis
túconserves vosotrosconservéisél conserva ellos conservan
él conserve ellos conserven
When would be appropriate to use formal and informal second person?
For context, I'm planning to speak mostly with my Mexican family members, many that I'll be meeting for the first time or for the first time in many years. Most of them are older than me (I have one younger brother who speaks mostly Spanish). Would it be better to speak formally to the older family members, or informally because they're family?
Would you start formally with strangers (esp. those who are older) and then at some point be able to drop formality as you become closer to people, or as they express to you that it's okay (similar to Korean and Japanese)?
The sentence "Now I want to repeat it!" is translated as ¡Ahora quiero repetir!
Why doesn't Spanish need an object pronoun here?
Gracias
Hi, a comment, the meaning of por que would be clearer by using the literal English translation. “Some women fight so that their work rights are recognized”. The English used here translates into Algunas mujeres luchan por el reconocimiento de sus derechos laborales. Shirley.
hi what's the rule for using the subjunctive here?thank you
Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
In the quiz question with the answers "We have to be patient with our teenage children.
We need to be patient with our teenage children."
As a native English speaker, I don't understand the distinction being made between these two options. They seem synonymous.
I wonder what the purpose of the subtle but significant change of meaning in Tanta luz no es buena to mean "This much light is not good." instead of "So much light is not good?"
If one is hired as a translator, I don't think one would take it upon oneself to make a change of the speaker's meaning in such a way.
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