Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,723 questions • 9,210 answers • 906,718 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,723 questions • 9,210 answers • 906,718 learners
Can "lo malo de . . ." in the last sentence also be translated as "la mala cosa . . ."?
Is "hay" only for present tense?
Are there different words for "there were" and "there will be"?
I answered 'si, tengo' but it was marked incorrect and should have been' si, los tengo'. Would you explain please? Many thanks.
I know ser means ‘to be’ in terms of characteristics and estar means ‘to be’ in temporary sense or in terms of location but why does this exercise use estar for ‘to be clear’ and ‘is cloudy’ but ser for ‘can be unstable’?
Can you clarify rules please. I thought cuando + subjunctive was used for something that would happen therefore you needed a future tense or an imperative and not a continuous present as in estamos ahorrandothanks julie
Please explain Me quisiera vs quisiera
Why does the word "llamáis" (or a lot of other verb forms for vosotros) have an accent on the penultimate syllable even though it ends with the letter s?
I have read this lesson and i think that stating that the tense of the verb following has to be the past participle would clear the confusion.
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