Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,682 questions • 9,140 answers • 895,247 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,682 questions • 9,140 answers • 895,247 learners
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Here's a space for you to discuss the changes in the Kwiziq Newsletter of May 1st.
Let us know what you like, dislike, anything you'd like to see more of, do you like the new "palabra curiosa" space? Share it here with your fellow Kwizzers!
As this discussion relates to a specific Newsletter, note that it will have a limited running time and close by May 8th 2025.
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I have read this lesson and i think that stating that the tense of the verb following has to be the past participle would clear the confusion.
Que son los deportes officiales en paraguay?
In the listening exercise is the phrase "para que la casa esté fresquita."
On the Futuro simple page (https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/revision/glossary/verb-tense-mood/futuro-simple) I couldn't find any page for "estar" in the future tense.
Is "esté" the 1st person singular of estar in futuro simple?
Or does it come from a different word?
What is the difference?
"Natillas Danone, listas para gustar" o quiza haya otra versión(?)
https://youtu.be/gDv_qnmnOF4?si=KTLr_-I9w46UbYLO
What are "baleadas" por favor? Y un "tapado"?
Can "lo malo de . . ." in the last sentence also be translated as "la mala cosa . . ."?
The lesson specifically states that we don’t use the gerund as we might in English. Then the gerund is used: He dejado de fumar. Am I missing something? Nowhere in the lesson does it say in certain instances we would use the gerund. Please explain.
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