Imperative Vs. SubjunctiveI have a question regarding the following excerpt:
"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:
Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)
No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"
My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.
Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?
Many thanks,
Stu
Proteger becomes protejo in first person present tense. Can’t you pretty much always dro the o and have the stem for the present subjunctive? For me, it is easier to remember.
Suggestion: To be consistent with other pages, and avoid confusion, I suggest you mark all the "i"s that are irregular in this conjugation.
Shouldn´t it be A veces cojo el autobús a la una?
"All yo-go verbs in Spanish, i.e verbs where the yo form ends in -go in El Presente, take that same stem to form El Presente de Subjuntivo and keep it all the way through the conjugation. However, the El Presente de Subjuntivo endings are the same as regular -er and -ir verbs endings."
In both cases, I was hesitant about whether to include the definite articles and I erred on the side of including them - which was wrong.
#1 - I put "vamos a intercambiar las ideas" instead of just "ideas". I've found that in English we use the definite articles much less than in Spanish, so I think I need a refresher of when to use them and when to leave them out! Can you point me in the right direction?
#2 - And with "voy a salir de casa temprano" , I actually had put this correct answer first but then doubted myself and put "voy a salir temprano de la casa". Can you explain why this is wrong? Thanks!
I have a question regarding the following excerpt:
"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:
Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)
No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"
My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.
Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?
Many thanks,
Stu
why does uno change "a la una", but ocho does not "a las ocho en punto"? Thank you!
Hello. Would the following be acceptable as translation?
"ya que su vida se refleja en cada uno de ellos"
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