Aprovechar(se) - misleading hint
1. In your "hint", you told us to "... use a pronominal verb for 'take advantage' " -
- but despite that^, in order to get a correct answer we were supposed to write: "Aprovecha la ruptura para conocerte más a ti misma" - [i.e., with 'aprovecha', a non-pronominal verb?]
("Aprovecha la ruptura ..." is of course quite consistent with the guidelines given in your lesson at Spanish verb Aprovechar vs Aprovecharse (pronominal verbs) [number 7478] ... so it is only your 'hint' which needs to be modified, not your text).
-.-.-.-.-
2. In your sentence: "... ya que ambos estábais sumergidos en una relación tóxica", there should not be a tilde in 'estabais'?
Could I also say por vuestra luna de miel? In case I would like to emphasize the reason for going here, not the timeframe?
In this lesson, you have a note near the bottom saying literal translations from English to Spanish don't always work and to not say: "No puedo esperar a..." (I can't wait to...). I notice Shawn offered an option to say “no ver la hora de…”. But I haven’t found other standard or colloquial ways to say, in Spanish, “I can’t wait to…”. Can you help with that? Thanks!
Is there are reason these sentences are in the pretérito perfecto:
La obra de teatro nos ha aburrido mucho
Me ha encantado tu actuación
The English translations aren't in the perfect. I could imagine saying "the play has bored us" and that carrying a somewhat different meaning than "the play bored us". Similarly, "I have loved your performance" might be something one would say to a regular company member who is leaving after 6 months in a role, while "I loved your performance" might be said to some immediately after seeing their show for the first time (in English). I am trying to understand the nuances of why you might use the perfect tense in Spanish when it seems like the indefinite tense would work as well (and in English would mean something different).
1. In your "hint", you told us to "... use a pronominal verb for 'take advantage' " -
- but despite that^, in order to get a correct answer we were supposed to write: "Aprovecha la ruptura para conocerte más a ti misma" - [i.e., with 'aprovecha', a non-pronominal verb?]
("Aprovecha la ruptura ..." is of course quite consistent with the guidelines given in your lesson at Spanish verb Aprovechar vs Aprovecharse (pronominal verbs) [number 7478] ... so it is only your 'hint' which needs to be modified, not your text).
-.-.-.-.-
2. In your sentence: "... ya que ambos estábais sumergidos en una relación tóxica", there should not be a tilde in 'estabais'?
However e > i verbs are different as they keep the e > i change all they way through their conjugation in El Presente de Subjuntivo.
In the example sentence, “ Tengo que ir al supermercado. Me falta fruta y carne.”, should the verb be faltan, since the subject of the sentence is fruta y carne?
Why is the present subjunctive not more correct for the following sentence? The lesson says it should be the imperfect subjunctive...but I think this is incorrect; this would require it be "you have had" rather than "you have"
"Maybe you have lots of friends in England"
As buen is an adjective, why can it not be used with es? Eg: es buen.
My friend, that I correspond with from Costa Rica added it into my name. So Alishita, does this have a meaning?
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