Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola Inma,

my answer was "la razón de esto". I really can' t tell the difference between those two. Is there a lesson about this subject?

Muchas gracias!

Hi!

I think if the English was restructured for a few of the examples, the distinction between haber/tener would be clearer. Essentially the past participle would be moved towards the end of the sentence while placing the object after have/has.

For example: You have two rooms painted. Marta and I have a trip to Egypt planned.

Thanks!

Is it not correct to say "las nueces" in the sentence translated from "I like eating nuts and honey?"

In your example: "Esa chica me parece de lo más insensata" you used a feminine adjective?

In the first example of this lesson, could the word "solía" be omitted and simply use "nadia", as the verb tense implies "usually"?

[Reposted so as to be visible in the Dictation]

I think I can understand why "... se puede ver a las ballenas jorobadas retozando, coqueteando ..." is correct - [meaning: "... one can see the humpback whales ...", or "... you can see ..."] - after reading your Kwiziq lessons " Using se debe/se puede to say You must/you can (impersonal sentences) "  [number 6933] and " Expressing instructions and general statements in Spanish with the impersonal se = one " [number 5132].

However - under 'Your Practice', you recommend the lesson " Forming the Spanish passive with se (la pasiva refleja) " [number 6089] - which seems more consistent with this answer: "... se pueden ver las ballenas jorobadas"? (i.e. with 'pueden' in the plural, and without the "a" [before the 'las']). Would this^ be a correct way of saying "... the humpback whales can be seen ..."?

I shouldn’t have been marked wrong by answering 2 questions just because I entered the word into the box that is to the right of the box.