Confusion over when definite article use is necessaryI just completed a translation exercise which included the following sentence:
"... we see the fireworks and we receive gifts from Father Christmas."
I translated the sentence as follows: "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos regalos desde Papá Noel". Kwiziq indicated that the correct translation should have been "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos los regalos de Papá noel."
I have two question about this:
1) Why was it necessary to insert "los" in front of "regalos"? I do not understand fully the rule of when the definite articles (singular or plural) must be used. As you can see, I inserted it when "the" was included before "fireworks" in the English translation, but omitted "los" when "the" was not included before "gifts" in the English translation. Again, what's the rule on this? When I practice the writing exercises seems use of articles is hit and miss.
2) I am confused about why "de" was used as translation of "from" instead of "desde". Seems "regalos de Papá Noel" would translate in English to Santa Claus's gifts. Please explain.
Thank you!
Pati Ecuamiga.
I can see how "lugar" might be used to signify: taking "place" (tener lugar) but surely the intent is that the occasion will "occur" rather than being placed somewhere? Would not "ocurrir" be a better verb? Esto ocurrirá entre . . . and why "esta" instead of "esto" or even "este"? It is an "evento", no?
And "habrá lugar para nuevos creadores"? It's as though "lugar" is being used as an easy substitute for better word choices.
What is IFEMA?
I believe that "escaparate" is like a "vitrina" which is an object, whereas the event, as a "highlight", might be considered to be "el último en moda" or "gran destacado de la moda española".
I feel as though I'm missing the point somehow. Nevertheless, it's a thought-provoking article for vocabulary.
I just completed a translation exercise which included the following sentence:
"... we see the fireworks and we receive gifts from Father Christmas."
I translated the sentence as follows: "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos regalos desde Papá Noel". Kwiziq indicated that the correct translation should have been "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos los regalos de Papá noel."
I have two question about this:
1) Why was it necessary to insert "los" in front of "regalos"? I do not understand fully the rule of when the definite articles (singular or plural) must be used. As you can see, I inserted it when "the" was included before "fireworks" in the English translation, but omitted "los" when "the" was not included before "gifts" in the English translation. Again, what's the rule on this? When I practice the writing exercises seems use of articles is hit and miss.
2) I am confused about why "de" was used as translation of "from" instead of "desde". Seems "regalos de Papá Noel" would translate in English to Santa Claus's gifts. Please explain.
Thank you!
Pati Ecuamiga.
My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) says that the verb 'aconsejar' is in a transitional state, such that it is sometimes seen followed by an infinitive rather than by a subjunctive (despite the change of subject - like 'persuadir' and several other verbs)... Perhaps the 'Academia' in Madrid needs to make a ruling on this matter?
los humanos PARA sobrevivir en el planeta rojo. why use para here ? what is its significance?
Hola Inma,
Gracias por ser tan claro cuando lees los ejercicios. ¡Me encantan tus historias! :)
'Estos últimos días ____ un calor terrible.' Would make me think they are in the past. today does not fit in them. or DOES it, becaus of 'Estos' ? because it talks about the last days (similar to 'last week' or 'yesterday') I presumed I had to use el indefinido (hizo), instead of the perfect (ha hecho).
Apparently I was wrong. So, please clarify, as the exact example is not identifiable in the lesson (to me at least), how I would be able to determine to use the indefinido. IS it because of 'Estos' ?
Thanks in advance!
Why does árabe have two accent marks?
So, how does Portuguese get into the mix of official languages? Is there a native African language first and then Spanish? And the French?
Podemos cambiar que por la preposición para? No hay alimentos para comer?
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