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5,704 questions • 9,181 answers • 902,334 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,704 questions • 9,181 answers • 902,334 learners
It says that I got this wrong, but I don't understand why (I put hubiese instead of habría)
Si no hubieran insistido tanto yo no los ________ a cenar.If they hadn't insisted so much I wouldn't have invited them for dinner.habría invitadohubiese invitadoWe would be delighted if you dined with us on Christmas Eve.
(HINT: you=vosotros)
cenéis
cenaríais
cenarais
cenasteis
The correct answer is evidently #3, but I don't understand how it's being conjugated.
Is there are reason these sentences are in the pretérito perfecto:
La obra de teatro nos ha aburrido mucho
Me ha encantado tu actuación
The English translations aren't in the perfect. I could imagine saying "the play has bored us" and that carrying a somewhat different meaning than "the play bored us". Similarly, "I have loved your performance" might be something one would say to a regular company member who is leaving after 6 months in a role, while "I loved your performance" might be said to some immediately after seeing their show for the first time (in English). I am trying to understand the nuances of why you might use the perfect tense in Spanish when it seems like the indefinite tense would work as well (and in English would mean something different).
For the phrase: Van (Uds.) a enviar los premios a nosotros?
To answer this question negatively, would it become:
no nos vamos a enviarlos
no nos los vamos a enviarlos (does the combination of nos + los clash because of the similar sounds)
Thank you!
Puse solo la mitad de la harina en el bol.
I only put half the (quantity of) flour in the bowl.
Ella tiene el doble de hermanos que él.
She has twice as many siblings as he does.
Why is it de LA harina, but not de LOS hermanos? Is the definite article always skipped after doble de? There was a quiz question for "________ tiempo" meant to be filled with doble. Would it be "el doble de" or "el doble del"?
These verbs all mean "to turn", but are they the same?
Thank u so much
All of them seem having same function.
Hi, are the following translations correct? Especially, I am a little confused about #2 (and #4), and wonder if "No creo que tú tuviera razón." is right for #2. Thank you.
1. I do not think you are right.: No creo que tú tengas razón.
2. I do not think you were right.: No creo que tú hayas tenido razón.
3. I did not think you were right.: No creía due tú tuviera razón.
4. I did not think you had been right.: No creía due tú hubiera tenido razón.
Me pregunto ¿si esta estructura se usa en otros países hispanohablantes también?
"All yo-go verbs in Spanish, i.e verbs where the yo form ends in -go in El Presente, take that same stem to form El Presente de Subjuntivo and keep it all the way through the conjugation. However, the El Presente de Subjuntivo endings are the same as regular -er and -ir verbs endings."
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