"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:

Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)

No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"

My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.

Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?

Many thanks,

Stu

Asked 3 years ago

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Paul E.B2Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

This is deep language learning!

Not really a question, but a statement! Now that I am halfway through level A2 I feel that the information that I need to form whole sentences is being taught, I have used other software in the past, but the depth of the courses in Kwiziq are amazing.
Please keep adding the content like you do, I feel I will be a lifetime client :-)

Asked 5 years ago

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Paris K.A1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

The indefinite adjective algún and the indefinite pronoun alguno

Please provide clearer explanation of rule, 'Don't mix the indefinite adjective algún with the indefinite pronoun alguno. You can never use alguno with a noun!'. Thank you

Asked 5 years ago

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David C.A1Kwiziq community member

When is a noun regular vs irregular?

Hello,

When is a noun regular and when is it irregular?

Nouns that end with an -o or -a are regular and everything else is irregular?

Asked 4 years ago

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Shirley S.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Why irse?Hi, I don’t understand why se iban is used instead of iban. Mis padres ________ que se iban a comprar una casa en la playa. My parents were going around saying that they were going to buy a house at the beach.iban a decirse quedaron diciendoseguían diciendoandaban diciendo
Thank youShirley

Asked 4 years ago