Spanish language Q&A Forum

En la lección de la nivel a2, "Conjugate ver in El Pretérito Perfecto (present perfect)", todos los ejemplos y se traducen los casos de El pretérito perfecto como el pretérito indefinido. ¿Por qué?

Just wondering what triggers the subjunctive in this example sentence from the lesson:

Se trata de que nos reunamos para pasar un buen rato

Thanks.

Regarding the examples below, why is the subjunctive used rather than the imperative?

No cierres la ventana por favor, tengo calor.
Don't close the window please, I am hot.

Señores, cierren las carpetas ahora.
Gentlemen, close your folders now.

Thank you, James

Is there are reason these sentences are in the pretérito perfecto:

La obra de teatro nos ha aburrido mucho

Me ha encantado tu actuación

The English translations aren't in the perfect. I could imagine saying "the play has bored us" and that carrying a somewhat different meaning than "the play bored us". Similarly, "I have loved your performance" might be something one would say to a regular company member who is leaving after 6 months in a role, while "I loved your performance" might be said to some immediately after seeing their show for the first time (in English). I am trying to understand the nuances of why you might use the perfect tense in Spanish when it seems like the indefinite tense would work as well (and in English would mean something different). 

There is another lesson about using the pretérito perfecto after esperar to indicate a completed action in the future. Is there any difference in sentence construction between these two cases or would intent have to be discerned entirely from context? 

Hola a todos,

I think I’m right in saying that, “Uno debe cuidar bien a sus amigos...” means “One/you must/look after/care for your friends...”. Is ‘uno debe’ just an alternative to ‘se debe’? 

I also wanted to ask about the use of ‘lo suyo’ in this passage. In the context here does it mean ‘it’s their thing/it’s up to them/ it’s their job to make me laugh...’? 

I enjoyed this exercise, gracias! :)

Why is it "soy feliz" and not "estoy"?

It seems I have considerable confusion over when to use a definite/indefinite article before a noun. I know it is needed when using gustar (e.g., me gusta el chocolate), but I have confusion in other contexts. For example, for the prompt "you need to have strong legs",  I wrote necesitas tener las piernas fuertes, but the correct answer was "necesitas tener piernas fuertes" --- without the article. What's the rule on this? 

My other confusion appears to be with the use of possessives. The prompt was "I'm going to exercise my muscles". I wrote voy a ejercitar los músculos but the correct answer was "voy a ejercitar mis músculos". It seems I'm confusing the rule of not using the possessive adjective as is required in such phrases as "My head is hurting"  --- "Me duelo la cabeza" , or "I raise my hand" -- "Me levanto la mano".  Please help me to know the difference for when I can (have) to use the possessive adjective versus when it is not used.

Thank you and I look forward to some clarity (finally) on these two issues.

Regards,

Pati Ecuamiga

Hola Inma,

The sentence given was "resultados terapéuticos en el dolor de estómago, cuello, espalda y pierna." In the A2 "Everything hurts!" exercise for this week there was a sentence "También, tengo dolor de estómago y de pies," where the "de" was repeated. I rationalised this as being way of saying that I have pain from / of stomach and from / of feet. I can't understand why the "de" isn't repeated in the example above from this B1 exercise.

Can you help please

Saludos

John 

Are there other verbs that have a different root for ‘nosotros’ in the present sunbjunctive?