Imperative Vs. SubjunctiveI have a question regarding the following excerpt:
"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:
Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)
No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"
My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.
Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?
Many thanks,
Stu
Hello Kwiziq,
Is there a rule for when to use 'a la calle'? I think I know the difference between por/en la calle but this 'a la calle' caught me out.
Kind regards
Dee
No entiendo por qué el Rey hizo eso. Él lo hizo porque quiso
Unless the Spanish have a definition of "conjunction" that differs from the one I've always understood, both "por qué" and
"porque" are both being used as conjunctions in those sentences. It is the sense of their use which differs.
Can these two uses be distinguished in spoken Spanish and if so, how?
"Mis padres se animaron con la visita de mis sobrinos." I don't understand why this is animarse. They aren't cheering themselves up, they're being cheered up by the visit of mis sobrinos.
Hello all, sorry if this is a long and unusal question..
Are there any professional teachers here, or professionals who have studied learning methods?
I am determined to get the very best from the software, but wonder if I am.
For example, i complete each of the "writing practice" exercises twice, back to back, which in my mind means that I am cementing my learning, but on the second run through I'm concerned that I may just have blindly memorised each answer. I do stop and research every part I get wrong if I don't see my mistake, but I'm still concerned I'm just being a parrot.
So, over to the professionals, what would you recommed for best learning practice in this software?
Thanks
In the last sentence, why is it not 'va a ser?
Hello,
In the following sentence I expected está, as "but it is very cold". Have I got this wrong?
"El agua es clara, pero esta muy fría."
Thanks
Hello, in another context, I have come across the expression:
No le di la mano hasta que no supe su nombre.
Would it also be correct, and have the same meaning, to omit the second "no" ?
And, in the 3rd example on this page, could one also say:
No vas a salir de casa hasta que no recojas tu habitación.
?
thanks!
I have a question regarding the following excerpt:
"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:
Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)
No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"
My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.
Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?
Many thanks,
Stu
The lesson should also explain whether the meaning is the same if these sentences use the future tense instead. Thank you.
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