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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,945 questions • 9,714 answers • 987,892 learners
I don’t understand any of this at all, whatsoever. I’ve read it many, many times, including the comments. I know there is a difference between Spain Spanish and Latin American Spanish for has/have, but how can one differentiate between them? I am so lost.
It says above "if the sentence has me, te, se, le, nos, os, les then no goes in front of these"
But what about direct object pronouns los, las, lo, la?
In the example ' Segun lo que me dijo Manuel, todo parecia ir bien' the verb is translated in the present tense. Isn't 'parecia' the imperfect?
Susana no credit que ya __________ (mentir) antes
"El descuento está a 20% (ahora)". Is this a correct way to use this kind of costruct?
Thank you as always!
We were told to form an adverb you take the feminine form and add 'mente' so it would effectively be 'Amente' So why does it say fuertamente is wrong, it's fuertEmente?
1Los enamorados se abrazan ________ . Lovers embrace each other tightly.(HINT: Convert "fuerte" into an adverb.)fuertamentefuertementefuertomenteThere is a note at the top of this lesson informing me that it is a Europe focused lesson, (whereas my focus is Latin America).
I learned my Spanish from a combination of university classes and living in Guatemala, so I chose the Latin American option. (However, several members of my family have learned Peninsular Spanish.) Could you explain how this lesson would be different for Latin American Spanish?
The use of antes de/despues de is very familiar Spanish to me. I found the lesson to be easily understandable and had no problem with it, so I am curious as to why it is not considered to be Latin American Spanish.
Gracias y saludos
My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) says that the verb 'aconsejar' is in a transitional state, such that it is sometimes seen followed by an infinitive rather than by a subjunctive (despite the change of subject - like 'persuadir' and several other verbs)... Perhaps the 'Academia' in Madrid needs to make a ruling on this matter?
Your translation of "There were many feminist movements" is given as "Hubieron muchos movimientos feministas" I had "Había muchos movimientos feministas". I can see why "hubo" would be preferred here, but I'm confused about "hubieron" Isn't the third person singular always used for "there was/were"?
Thank you
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