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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,946 questions • 9,716 answers • 988,563 learners
Are there structural clues we can look for to determine whether "que" is meant to express a wish vs. disbelief or would it be contextual? I ask since sometimes the disbelief version can be followed by the subjunctive.
I have a question regarding the following excerpt:
"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:
Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)
No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"
My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.
Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?
Many thanks,
Stu
Las pronunciaciones de los ejemplos españoles con signos de interrogación no suenan correctos. Este ejemplo en la lección, "Conjugate regular -ar verbs in El Pretérito Indefinido", "¿Ayudaste a tu madre?", la pronunciación no tiene la inflexión apropiado por una pregunta.
¿Tengo razón?
En este ejemplo la pronunciación no quiere apropiado inflexión por una interrogación pregunta
In English these are sometimes interchangeable. Could one say "However much it costs.../ Whatever it costs..." using either 'cueste lo que cueste...' or 'cueste como cueste...' ?
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Thank youShirley
Hello and I hope you are all doing and staying well!
In English they say that becoming proficient with transitive and intransitive verbs further includes knowing how they function with direct and indirect objects.
1) I'm wondering if this applies as well in Spanish and if so
2) how can we use this and which lessons cover this particular subject.?
Thank you for your help.
Nicole
I don't understand the example sentence " Ninguna chica viajará contigo a ninguna parte". The tip says that you can only use the words "ningun" or "Ninguna" at the beginning of a sentence, so this example sentence does not make sense to me since " Ninguna" Is found towards the end of the sentence too. Thank you.
Hi there, I am a little confused as there appears to be inconsistencies in the colouring of letters which are irregular in the verb tables.
In this table only the Z is red, I understand that the letter Z is the main focus of the lesson, however almost all of this verb is irregular, and only highlighting the Z makes me question myself.
In other lessons I have seen emphasis with both red and blue, but there doesn't appear to be a regular pattern, which also casts doubt on my learning.
I know it may be a big job, but would it be possible to devise a standard practice, and then implement? Maybe a job for a Spanish intern :-)
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