Spanish language Q&A Forum

Is it incorrect to not use the contraction in Spanish.  Whereas, in English, it is NOT incorrect to not use the contraction.  For example, "do not" is as acceptable as "don't."  Is "a el" acceptable, or incorrect?  Thank you.

My understanding is that 'Imperative' is a mood, not a tense, the other moods being 'indicative' and 'subjunctive'.

'Passve' and 'Active' are 'voices'.

In the sentence:

La bruja le maldice todos los años. (The witch curses him every year)

I expected it to read "lo maldice" to say "to curse him" where "him" would be the direct object. Why is it le?

I am trying to sort out the tenses in the following example from above:

Dejó el trabajo porque quería mejor sueldo.He left his job because he wanted a better salary.
The first verb (dejó) is preterito indefinido indicating a complete action in the past.  
The second (quería) is preterito imperfecto.  

I think this is because "he" probably had been wanting a better salary for a while before he left his job and it was an ongoing action.  Is this the right way to think about this sentence?

Hi,

I was wondering why the "present" tense is used in Spanish for "llamar" which is then translated in the future tense.  Why not llamaremos?

Después de la fiesta llamamos a un taxi.
After the party we will call a taxi.

Thank you. 

I just wrote sonriais in a blank on a test and it marked my answer "almost right", and gave the right answer as "sonriáis".

Hola,

1. Would "¿dónde habréis estado en 10 años a partir de ahora?" be acceptable?

2. Is there a lesson available on when it is best to place an adjective before a noun - I put cristalinas before aguas.

Regards. John

I wonder if the chosen translation depends on the context? 

This is probably an easy question, but is there a simple way to tell when "tanto...como" means "both" and when it means "the same as"?  Thanks.