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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,820 questions • 9,537 answers • 954,003 learners
I'm confused over the above example: El banco nos dijo que firmáramos los documentos.
With the English translation provided (The bank told us to sign the documents), why is it not written as follows:
El banco nos dijo firmar los documentos.
What's confusing is the reason for the use of el imperfecto de subjuntivo in this example --- particularly with this English translation.
Pati Ecuamiga
Usually with expressions of uncertainty, such as "tal vez" or "quizas", we use the subjunctive. Do the expressions "a lo mejor" and "lo mismo" indicate more certainty, since they don't trigger the subjunctive?
Should it read:
Using the present or future tense IF the main clause does not change the meaning of the sentence. IF in place of IN
Girar is not, and certainly not 'torcer', used for a person to "turn" when giving directions - just 'ir'. Faulty vocab for this context.
I've been taught that this usage of the passive voice is discouraged in English, especially in formal writing, and especially when the active voice is easily possible. Is the same true in Spanish? Thank you!
Do salud and sanidad both mean health. How do you choose which one to use?
Hello, Could "niñitos" work in place of "niños pequeños"? Thanks.
Hello, when I want to translate "they hit her" (occurring in the past for a period), it is translated as "le pegaban" or "la golpeaban". Why is it an indirect object pronoun for pegar but direct for golpear?
Is there a rule that explains why the definite articles aren’t needed here even though mujeres and hombres are the subjects of the sentence?
Hello,
Why, for the translation of 'he is at his mother's house' is the spanish version 'el esta en casa de su madre' and not 'el esta en LA casa de su madre'? It feels strange that this article is dropped.
Thanks!
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