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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,046 questions • 9,892 answers • 1,024,840 learners
I thought general experiences were talked about in the Imperfect. The time markers given in this lesson match up with https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/learn/theme/746448.
And also this lesson seems to indicate using the Imperfect:
Using the imperfect tense in Spanish to express habits or repeated actions in the past (El Pretérito Imperfecto)
Hi. I just read these 2 phrases in an article:
A tan poca distancia del sol
A tan solo 42 millones de kilómetros del sol.
Is it similar in meaning to the above but varies only with the use of distances instead if time?
I have only now noticed that I read 'brought' for 'bought', but the rest of my question stands.
"A new Reference Grammar ..." by Butt and Benjamin discusses Spanish verbs which can be followed by an infinitive instead of the subjunctive - even when the subjects are different in the two halves of the sentence, e.g. persuadir, ayudar, enseñar, [+ preposition 'a']. The authors suggest that "pedir" may be starting to move in that direction (mainly in Latin America, where rules are perhaps more relaxed than in Spain, particularly in conversations?) In addition, the infinitive construction with 'pedir' seems to be creeping into casual journalistic style, especially in headlines.
In the sentence "Creo que habrás pensando como yo" I believe that it should be " habrás pensado" or "habrás estado pensando".
Isn't it?
Thank you in advance!
Best regards
In English there is a difference between 'stop smoking' as in put down the cigarette your smoking right now and 'stop to smoke' as in in quit smoking for good. Anything like that in Spanish?
Hola,
Los mariscos en Grecia estaban riquísimos
I would have said eran riquísimos - because it's a characteristic.
Why am I wrong? :)
Gracias,
1st table of examples. Why do you use 'tocara' in the third sentence when referring to 'they'? Should it not be 'tocaran'?
Hola
I have a question
Why it's "las" before dos ...tres..etc
And before una it's "la"
I am totally confused on this one. Does the adverb agree with the noun?
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