Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hay and hace both seem to use nouns but they don't seem to be interchangeable.  I'm puzzled as to why, for example, it's hace calor but hay humedad.

There is a test question that goes like this: 

¿Qué viaje prefieres comprar? Prefiero ________.Which trip do you prefer to buy? That one over there.

The correct answer is "aquel". However, this doesn't make sense to me, as a trip isn't a thing you can see/touch. It's a series of connected actions (traveling from point A to B, seeing things, doing things) and as such seems more of an abstract concept or idea than a physical thing like a coat or a skirt. 

According to the lesson text, the proper use of "aquello" is when referring to an idea. As such, I would choose "aquello" as the pronoun.

Am I interpreting the use of "aquello" incorrectly, or is the answer wrong?

Dijeron que nos pagarían las horas extra trabajadas cuando ________ el mes.

They said they'd pay our overtime when it was the end of the month.

terminase

terminaba

terminó

termine

I don't understand why this sentence fits this lesson. Surely there cannot be much uncertainty that there will be an end to the month. Wouldn't this make more sense in the indicative? 

Hola,

Could you provide a few (more) examples of the use of the verb 'to cost' something?

What sorts of things does it cover (or could you use it for everything)?

Everything fluctuates in price, so are we talking about things that we concentrate our daily lives on (sometimes obsess about!): stock market/ currency, houses, petrol, food, drink? Things we think of as fluctuating day to day?

Gracias,

Can you please elaborate a bit on when the "que" is necessary in "gracias a que"? Is there a reason it's needed for nuestros padres but not for la colaboración? 

Foggy and sunny are both adjectives so why does one use hay and one use está?

Hay niebla

Está soleado,

Gracias

the sentence, i paste it on the wall

here , is , the wall the indirect obj. pronoun?

Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")  

However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo): 

"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"

why are the translations: 

1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted

while the translations:

2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?

I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?

Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.

Hola Shui,

I enjoyed this lesson but it wasn't very straight forward. I searched on the meaning of "cumbia" and it was given as "dance music not unlike a salsa, but originating from Colombia." Who doesn't like salsa!

I find it a bit of a contradiction to see powerful social issues addressed - not just environmental but also injustice and the consequences of violence [as portrayed in the video] - to a dance rhythm. What's more, it reads like a love song but I kind of get that as a metaphor, and in fairness Carlos sings the song with a fair degree of passion, which goes well with the issues portrayed. 

That said it doesn't feel quite right to get up and dance something like the salsa to lyrics which are a mix of love and real tragedy - lost loved ones, widowed mother and child, armed militias etc.

Is this part of the Latin American mentality? Celebrate despite your miseries? Don't let them grind you down? 

Thanks for a challenging lesson. Saludos. John