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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,084 questions • 9,963 answers • 1,040,072 learners
Good day,
I would like to know why you also need to use the subject in the sentence when you already conjugate the verb in the proper form? I.e. Nosotros volvemos muy cansados instead of volvemos muy cansados? Thanks a lot and best regards,
Marvin
Are "antes de que" and "antes que" fully interchangeable? Does one sound better than the other or is used more in one or another situation? (It could help to say this explicitly.)
Also, you run through the various past/present/future possibilities of "después de que" noting where the subjunctive or indicative is used. You don't give as many cases for "antes de que". Is it correct to infer that regardless of whether we are referring to a past, present or future event, "antes de que" must always be followed by the subjunctive. (Might help to say so explicitly if this is the case.)
I still don't get email notifications when new answers are posted.
Can anyone explain why the following answer options are all punctuated with a semicolon? Is this the correct use of a semicolon in Spanish? In English, it would be a comma instead of a semicolon.
Hola Shui, Inma y Anna,
¡Estoy tan feliz con este reader!
Muchísimas gracias
I don't understand why my answer to No 1 was incorrect: "... fotografias. Queres ver algunas?"I chose "algunas"because it agreed in gender and number with fotografias and was not in the affirmative. Very confusing.
Though it is a bit formal sounding, another way to translate the passive form in English referring to a '"general you", i.e. people in general ', is "ONE must/can...". For example "One must always tell the truth".
I find that helps me differentiate between "you must" - debes (a specific person), and the passive "One must" - se debe (people/individuals in general)
¡Jajaja, la probrecita Lalá!
Si sólo fuera una perrita como Lalá, Qué vida tan fácil, no? :))
Gracias a Shui y Inma.
In this question I answered "éramos" instead of "fuimos" since the text referred to "used to be." Why was that wrong? I get that the "completed action in the past" hint confused the situation. Shouldn't the question be clarified, or am I missing something here?
Nosotros ________ muy buenos estudiantes.We used to be very good students.(HINT: Refers to a completed action in the past.)
From the lesson:
"Note that while "fue" is generally translated into "was" in English, "era" can be translated into "was", "used to be" and "would be"."
Vas a/para casa de Inés
Wouldn't there be "la" before casa?Then if "a" or "para" is correct why don't we get "no banana" if we used "para"? In this case using "a" instead of "para" is more correct?
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