Hello, when I want to translate "they hit her" (occurring in the past for a period), it is translated as "le pegaban" or "la golpeaban". Why is it an indirect object pronoun for pegar but direct for golpear?
Pegar v Golpear object pronouns
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Hola Katrina
Could you please let me know in which exercise you have this doubt?
Gracias
Silvia
GarryKwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Una observación muy astuta, Katrina. Me lo preguntaba y he llegado a la conclusión de que podría ser una cuestión de leísmo/loísmo y que cualquiera de las dos versiones es opcional. Creo que necesitamos la opinión de Inma o Silvia.
¿Nos ayudan, por favor?
InmaKwiziq team member
Hola Katrina and Garry
With golpear it's OK to use a direct object pronoun to refer to the person who is hit: la golpearon, lo golpearon...
However, with "pegar" this would be a case of loísmo and laísmo. The person that is hit is the indirect object (not direct) I imagine this is because it's easy to add a direct object with this:
"le pegaron una paliza" (they beat him/her up, they gave him/her a beating)
also: "les pegaron unos golpes", "le pegaron un cabezazo..."
Saludos
Inma
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