Pegar v Golpear object pronouns

Katrina B.Kwiziq community member

Pegar v Golpear object pronouns

Hello, when I want to translate "they hit her" (occurring in the past for a period), it is translated as "le pegaban" or "la golpeaban".  Why is it an indirect object pronoun for pegar but direct for golpear?

Asked 1 year ago
SilviaNative Spanish expert teacher in KwiziqCorrect answer

Hola Katrina

Could you please let me know in which exercise you have this doubt?

Gracias

Silvia

Garry M.A2Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Una observación muy astuta, Katrina. Me lo preguntaba y he llegado a la conclusión de que podría ser una cuestión de leísmo/loísmo y que cualquiera de las dos versiones es opcional. Creo que necesitamos la opinión de Inma o Silvia.

¿Nos ayudan, por favor?

InmaNative Spanish expert teacher in Kwiziq

Hola Katrina and Garry

 

With golpear it's OK to use a direct object pronoun to refer to the person who is hit: la golpearon, lo golpearon... 

However, with "pegar" this would be a case of loísmo and laísmo. The person that is hit is the indirect object (not direct)  I imagine this is because it's easy to add a direct object with this:

 "le pegaron una paliza(they beat him/her up, they gave him/her a beating)

also: "les pegaron unos golpes""le pegaron un cabezazo..."

Saludos

Inma

 

 

Katrina B. asked:

Pegar v Golpear object pronouns

Hello, when I want to translate "they hit her" (occurring in the past for a period), it is translated as "le pegaban" or "la golpeaban".  Why is it an indirect object pronoun for pegar but direct for golpear?

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