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5,778 questions • 9,434 answers • 940,092 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,778 questions • 9,434 answers • 940,092 learners
I am looking for a clarification on how to say that you know/don't know how to do something. For example, "I know how to dance" is "Sé bailar" or "Sé como bailar"? I feel like it's the first one, and that saying "como" is redundant or just a direct translation from english, but I'm not entirely sure. Is there ever an instance in which you would say "como + infinitive" to say "how to ...."? Or am I totally wrong?
Does "postre" literally mean "pudding desert" as us suggested by the test answer? I would have thought another word would have been needed, or perhaps "flan" would have worked instead of "postre"?
Is it common in Spanish to use the first name of a person and the formal form together?
In your example on the use of tanto...como, one of your sentence has left me uncertain about the translation. Tanto cuando son pequeños como majores, los hijos siempre preocupan a los padres. The English translation in your example is: Whether they are young or grown-up, children are always a worry for their parents. The use of the personal "a" before the word "los padres" suggests that the children worry about the parents, except that the verb should have been "se preocupan"..If it was intended to mean that the parents always worry about the children whether young or grown-up, in my opinion, the words "los hijos" and "los padres" should be interchanged, with the verb se preocupan. Otherwise " están ocupados" should have been used instead of "preocupan" and or used before los padres. Please advise.
In the first example above viz. A el no imporatba lo que hubiera dicho
it reads as if I really had said something and if so, why not indicative?
Sometimes the answers require the feminine 'a' but there isn't any context in the question as to the gender of the subject.
Unless I'm mistaken, which is highly probable :)
cheers
Brian
Hi,
I was wondering why this sentence uses the indicativo in the si-clause:
"me dijo que si la regaba y crecía como una planta, tendría un perro"
Isn't the mom seeing this condition as something not at all likely to happen? Does not the use of the conditional in the main clause also indicate that it is less likely and therefore require the subjunctivo?
Thanks!
Deborah
I think it would also be helpful to have examples with the conjugates that still have 'z', so that we know how it sounds and how to pronounce it correctly.
A quiz question asks “vas a venir al cine mañana?”. In English it seems more common to say “are you going to go the movies tomorrow?” (or simply “are you going to the movies tomorrow?”) Any insights into this use of venir instead of ir?
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