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5,819 questions • 9,535 answers • 952,980 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,819 questions • 9,535 answers • 952,980 learners
Shouldn't it ne present simple no sabemos?
Why does the english say “gradually”? Is it somehow implied in the spanish?
Thanks,
Shirley
Extrañamos estos festivales ahora con la pandemia
If there can be multiple answers, it would be nice if the lesson indicated that.
Sometimes the answers require the feminine 'a' but there isn't any context in the question as to the gender of the subject.
Unless I'm mistaken, which is highly probable :)
cheers
Brian
This is not the focus of the lesson, but in the above example I would have expected to see “la pierna.” Is “mi” more common with this particular body part, or is it just adding some kind of emphasis here?
I’ve noticed that nouns with accents on the last syllable, such as el motín, el bastón, and el almacén, are masculine (of course the feminine ión ending is an exception). Is this a general rule? It helps to us automatically think of ataúd and laúd as masculine without having to remember them separately.
Hola Inma,
-Juan le compró a su mujer un diamante. -Le habrá comprado un diamante pero no le hace ni caso.In the above example of yours, is it correct to use le compraría /le habría comprado un diamante pero no le hace ni caso, since le compró is a past accion.
I' m really confused with these two lessons: using el Futuro Simple / Futuro Perfecto to express objection,disbelief and using el Conticional simple / Conticional Perfecto to express objection,disbelief.
Muchas gracias!
Ελισάβετ
Why is it:
Esta oscuro, esta sol, esta hublado,esta nevando,
but
hace calor, hace frio,hace viento ?
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