Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,046 questions • 9,892 answers • 1,025,048 learners
Getting that for you now...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,046 questions • 9,892 answers • 1,025,048 learners
No puedo entender esto parte.
solo mira el aguila cruzando el mundo azul (mirar: to look/see, so translation would be only look the eagle crossing...etc?
solo cantan las sirenas en el ancho de los mares (only sing the mermaids?
Un poco confundida.
I personally find it helpful to bear in mind that all verbs ending in "-etir" follow the above-mentioned e>i pattern [like competir] - e.g. repetir and derretir.
And - because 'd' is just the voiced form of 't' - some people may like to extend this guide to include all the "-edir" verbs as well; e.g. pedir, impedir, medir.
How does "could" translate from "Dónde estará esa chica?" Isn't that future tense? Would "¿Dónde podría estar esa chica?" be more correct?
cuándocuando
Hi,
The two problems with use of English posted some time ago are still not fixed. Hence, I'm still struggling to get to grips with this lesson.
"If I went to the hairdresser's" in English means; "If I were to go". They are equivqlent.
Similarly. "If he had an accident" is equivalent to " if he were to have an accident".
In both cases, the first sentence is common usage. The second using the the subjunctive is very uncommon in everyday English.
I don’t see any explanation in this unit as to use of the Subjunctive and yet many of the verbs in the examples are in the Subjunctive. Could you make it explicit what this depends on? Thank you.
Hi!
After going through this lesson, I understand that these endings are used to soften the words, and in some cases I understand why you would use it, but there are also some cases where I'm not sure why you would use it. For example, for "hace calorcillo", why would you want to soften this sentence? I can't see what the meaning would be?
Hello,
I am reading a fairly reputable bilingual version of Sherlock Holmes. On one sentence it says 'Iba vestido discretamente con un traje de mezclilla de lana....'
The translation (and my own reading of the context) suggests that this means 'He was discretely dressed....'
But if that's the case why have they used 'iba'? Is that incorrect? The man was not 'going to do' anything. He just 'was'. My searching online and using Google translate suggests that only estar (or possibly ser) in the past tense are valid here, not ir.
Thanks!
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level