Spanish language Q&A Forum

Just wondering why the extra word is in the English translation.

No hagan ruido
Don't make (any) noise    Kwiziq

No hagan ningún ruido 
Don't make any noise     

Hi,

I was wondering if there is a reason the "c" turns in a "j",  It seems to me that

conduce would sound fine in front of "e" and "i" (perhaps just a change in front of the "a" and "o".

Do you know of any reason for the change?

Thank you.

In the example:

"Los que hayan reservado con antelación pueden ir a esa ventanilla"

why is it 'hayan' and not 'han'?

Hola,

I don't understand how 'debido a que' is a wrong answer in the test for this question?

Ella dejó a su marido ________ su mal humor y sus celos.She left her husband because of his bad temper and jealousy.

I guess it's because it's a combination of nouns (humor, celos) without any further embellishment, but it's confused me because of the explanation referring to a noun, rather than nouns plural:

"If we use debido a que, it can never be followed just by a noun, it needs a phrase."

Gracias,

How do I enter an inverted question mark at the beginning of the question?

This is not the focus of the lesson, but in the above example I would have expected to see “la pierna.” Is “mi” more common with this particular body part, or is it just adding some kind of emphasis here?

In the lesson "Use Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido "  we have this example:

-¿Dónde está Jaime? -Hace dos horas que se fue.
-Where is Jaime? -He left two hours ago.

In the lesson "When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past in European Spanish (Perfecto vs Indefinido)" we have this example:

Note: If you talk about time ago using hace then the tense will still depend on whether the event in question was 'today' or another day:

Lo he visto hace 2 minutos.
I saw him two minutes ago.

Are they both correct?  It they are, that tells me that when using "Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido", we could either of these?

Jim Kurczewski