Spanish language Q&A Forum

Using tan ... como = as ... as (comparatives with adjectives and adverbs)

The link in the list of A2 lessons leads to a duplicate of TANTO COMO..... +NOUNS/VERBS

maybe not  for everybody but it does for me

Good day,

I would like to know why you also need to use the subject in the sentence when you already conjugate the verb in the proper form? I.e. Nosotros volvemos muy cansados instead of volvemos muy cansados? Thanks a lot and best regards,

Marvin

If the direct object of a verb is an animal, but not a pet or cherished animal, for example a tiger, is the personal a still indicated?

Busco a un tigre. or,

Busco un tigre.

Hola Inma,

I'm trying to understand better why the subjunctive is used. Are negative opinions like no creo que, no opino que, no pienso que, no parece que etc, always assumed to reflect an element of doubt on the part of the person i.e. "I don't think so .... but I may be wrong." 

If you are adamant that the negative opinion is correct [for example using one of the examples in the associated lesson] "I don't think María is jealous," couldn't that also be taken as a clear statement of my opinion without any doubt in my head at least? This would be possible in English. In which case would it be expressed differently in Spanish for example "Estoy seguro de que María no es celosa."

Saludos. John

Ella ________ famosa después del anuncio de la tele. She became famous after the advert on the TV.

This example seems to be a consequential change (resulting from being on TV) not a voluntary change. The answer given is hacerse, but volverse seems more adequate if my understanding is correct. But this isn't even listed as a verb of change in the lesson. 

Isn't quedarse a better choice than hacerse? I thought hacerse meant a change as a result of a conscious and voluntary effort on the part of a person undergoing the change?

These verbs are so confusing!!!

What is the difference between these two sentences?

Las fresas habían estado siendo recolectadas.

Las fresas habían estado recolectadas.

If they both mean 'The strawberries had been collected.', under what circumstances are the two sentences used?

Hi Silvia. In the example, "Tal vez yo haya estudiado mucho para el examen," the English translation says, "I might have studied a lot for the exam".  Is that "I might have studied a lot" in the sense "maybe I would have studied a lot [if I had time?"] Or "Perhaps (it possible) I studied a lot for the exam"? Both?

Oh wait, after writing this I realized that the sentence perhaps means, "I should have studied a lot for the exam.” We Americans almost never use the word “might” in this sense. I’m not sure how much you Brits (all British residents) do. Is this the sense in which it is used here?

I am interested in the reasoning for using "los cuales" in "no se sabe si permitirán a los niños a llevar sus móviles apagados dentro de sus mochilas, los cuales podrán encender al final del día".  My understanding is that "que" is used by default when referring to a specific noun, in this case "sus móviles", while "el/la/los/las cuales" is an optional, more formal alternative.  But in my answer the simple "que" was deemed incorrect.  Is this because the "que" would refer to "sus mochilas", being the noun immediately preceding, so the "los cuales" is required to disambiguate?  Or have I misunderstood something more basic?    

I'm guessing it's because it's the adverb of understand, not because it's the adjective of gente? Thank you!