Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola,

In the following quiz I replied with ‘...solamente hubiéramos llegado...’ and it was marked as incorrect. The required answer was just ‘hubiéramos llegado’. Was I in fact wrong to include ‘solamente’? Is the ‘if only’ implied here? 

Si ________ a tiempo. If only we had come on time.HINT: Conjugate "llegar" in El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto de SubjuntivoGracias a todos 

You should add some comprehension questions after each reading text

Hi,

On this exercise the question is 

He pedido a la mensajería que ........... el paquete por la tarde/ I have asked the delivery company to deliver the parcel in the afternoon.

The hint is to conjugate the ellos form of entregar  in El Presente de Subjuntivo.

Why is this to be in the plural form and not singular? As it states la mensajería/ the company which is singular.

The use of “te cansas” looks like reflexive use to me.  However, when I consult the dictionary the use is described as pronominal use.  Please help me with the difference between pronominal and reflexive use.  

The lesson says, "Sometimes, when we talk about putting or attaching things on people, animals or things we still use the indirect object pronouns without the preposition." In the examples of this that are given, what preposition is not being used? Thanks!

I am confused 

When can i use hay...hace...estar 

Can u explain in details plz 

And i need more exercise in this thing 

Thx in advance 

I am looking for a clarification on how to say that you know/don't know how to do something. For example, "I know how to dance" is "Sé bailar" or "Sé como bailar"? I feel like it's the first one, and that saying "como" is redundant or just a direct translation from english, but I'm not entirely sure. Is there ever an instance in which you would say "como + infinitive" to say "how to ...."? Or am I totally wrong?

SpanishDict does not have a tilde for sonar but you did.  Why the difference?

Hola,

I have just completed a test with the above sentence to be completed with an adverb.

I do not have a problem with the adverb but with this part of the sentence:

... no nos quedan más ...

Can you please explain how the above equals 'we have no more' in English?  I wonder why it is quedan and not quedamos.

Many thanks for you help.

Saludos,

Colin