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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,119 questions • 10,022 answers • 1,055,016 learners
Hi,
The two problems with use of English posted some time ago are still not fixed. Hence, I'm still struggling to get to grips with this lesson.
"If I went to the hairdresser's" in English means; "If I were to go". They are equivqlent.
Similarly. "If he had an accident" is equivalent to " if he were to have an accident".
In both cases, the first sentence is common usage. The second using the the subjunctive is very uncommon in everyday English.
Hi, from previous discussions I understands there's no easy to identify "ser" and "estar", however may I confirm "en" must come with "estar". And if I see "a/al" it must come with "ir" (ir and ser have same El Pretérito Indefinido)?
Thank you, Hayley
Why is it “compramos dos billetes de ida y vuelta en ventanilla” and not LA ventanilla? I don’t think I’ve seen this before, it doesn’t seem to fit with the other rules on definite articles?
Hi there,
I have a question about the final sentence of the exercise. Why does 'hasta que' invoke the subjunctive here when the action is in the past? Thanks.
Hello,
I hope everything is well at Kwiziq!
How would I express something like:
"They are my dad's"
Would it be:
"Son de mi padre"
Ser is a verb and I'm not sure if it can be used with the preposition "de" like this or if this is a common way to express "they are" in Spanish. Could you use the pronouns: este, esta, estos, estas, ese, esos, esa, esas?
Thank you,
Andrew
Hi Silvia. In the example, "Tal vez yo haya estudiado mucho para el examen," the English translation says, "I might have studied a lot for the exam". Is that "I might have studied a lot" in the sense "maybe I would have studied a lot [if I had time?"] Or "Perhaps (it possible) I studied a lot for the exam"? Both?
Oh wait, after writing this I realized that the sentence perhaps means, "I should have studied a lot for the exam.” We Americans almost never use the word “might” in this sense. I’m not sure how much you Brits (all British residents) do. Is this the sense in which it is used here?
Hello, in this example linked to the lesson : So my question is when is it antes de and when is it antes que ? Is antes de only for temporal subjects (antes de la cena...) ? And is there also después que ? Thank you.
No es justo que vosotros antes que nosotros. (It's not fair that you'll die before us.) HINT: Conjugate "morir" in El Presente de Subjuntivo.
Hi! I had a similar issue to Nicole taking a test today.
The question was:
¿A qué ________?What do you do?
I answered te dedicas and se dedica. It marked me incorrect for not choosing trabajas as well. But I thought it was "en que trabajas", not "a que". Is this an error w/ the quiz or am I not understanding something?
Thank you!
I am looking for a clarification on how to say that you know/don't know how to do something. For example, "I know how to dance" is "Sé bailar" or "Sé como bailar"? I feel like it's the first one, and that saying "como" is redundant or just a direct translation from english, but I'm not entirely sure. Is there ever an instance in which you would say "como + infinitive" to say "how to ...."? Or am I totally wrong?
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