Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the quiz I just did, the question was: “¡Qué ________ tiene ese hombre!” and the answer was manazas.  Is there a reason that Mano with an “o” ending becomes Manazas and not Manazos?  Is it simply because Mano is feminine even though it ends with an “o”?

In the lesson "Use Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido "  we have this example:

-¿Dónde está Jaime? -Hace dos horas que se fue.
-Where is Jaime? -He left two hours ago.

In the lesson "When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past in European Spanish (Perfecto vs Indefinido)" we have this example:

Note: If you talk about time ago using hace then the tense will still depend on whether the event in question was 'today' or another day:

Lo he visto hace 2 minutos.
I saw him two minutes ago.

Are they both correct?  It they are, that tells me that when using "Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido", we could either of these?

Jim Kurczewski