Spanish language Q&A Forum

I understand your comments below where "sobre la montaña" refers to the top of the mountain, and why "por" is the best choice. However, I'm curious about using "sobre dónde" with respect to "la cine," for example, where there is no "top". I've seen "sobre dónde" elsewhere used to mean "whereabouts", and am wondering if this is correct.

I am looking for a clarification on how to say that you know/don't know how to do something. For example, "I know how to dance" is "Sé bailar" or "Sé como bailar"? I feel like it's the first one, and that saying "como" is redundant or just a direct translation from english, but I'm not entirely sure. Is there ever an instance in which you would say "como + infinitive" to say "how to ...."? Or am I totally wrong?

The lesson says, "Sometimes, when we talk about putting or attaching things on people, animals or things we still use the indirect object pronouns without the preposition." In the examples of this that are given, what preposition is not being used? Thanks!

In this exercise, the adjective "gran" has been placed BEFORE the noun "siesta". To me, that suggests that the nap was "great", "wonderful", "marvelous", etc. as opposed to big, (i.e., long) in which case, I think that the adjective "grande" would be used and placed BEHIND the noun "siesta". However, in the English translation, I think I remember the word "big" being used (I'm not absolutely positive about this). Would you care to comment on this issue?

Hola Inma,

1) My answer was "disfrutamos de esta cena maravillosa" but it was marked wrong.

Can you, please, explain when the verb disfrutar needs the "de"?

2) "y hizo una salsa de guacamole muy rica": I'm not sure, but I thing it sould be e hizo, or am I wrong?

Un saludo

Ελισάβετ

One of the lessons included things that were happening in the past but are still ongoing. Instead of the present perfect, it included the present tense and then something else (it was not this lesson). Could you tell me where that lesson is or explain it to me? Thanks.

I'm thinking they should sound the same in both peninsular and Latin American Spanish. If that's true then why the spelling change?