Spanish language Q&A Forum

I’d like to see a comparison of using both to speak about the past 

I am trying to make my own sentences using preterite for ir etc. I wrote "Ella fue a casa"

but google is saying it should be "Ella se fue a casa". Why 'se'? is it like saying "she went home (to it)"?

Would it be "El vestido es tan hermoso como una mariposa?" for the dress is as beautiful as a butterfly?

and is this the same for comparing to multiple objects when the described object is singular: La luz es tan brillante como las estrellas.

Why is Hay used for It is foggy? Isn't foggy an adjective?

The examples make sense of using, ex: tuviera, because the subject “had” something in the past. However, I’m confused by the test question because I don’t see a reference to the past. The sentence is “I hope i have a son by the time im 33.” I understand Ojalá triggers the subjunctive but I don’t see the connection to the last and therefore don’t understand why “tuviera” was the correct answer. I only selected it because it was the only subjunctive response. 

!No me encuentro/no encuentro   las llaves del coche! is the test item.

The correct answer is reported to be no encuentro.  
Encontrarse is said to be used when "surprised to discover something".  I interpreted the exclamation marks as indicating surprise at discovering I was unable to find the keys.  I was probably overthinking it, ?verdad?

If querer que is a subjunctive because it expresses wants, why is the negative also subjunctive? It expresses "not wants". Or is it because that technically also counts as a want? I remember reading that if you have a negative of a subjunctive it becomes an indicative

Están comparando varias frases con pasar y pasarse, pero las traducciones en inglés son iguales. ¿Un error?

I spent a whole day writing this essay.