Q&A Forum

Hi all, 

This is an interesting usage that I haven't come across before. Is it only used in Spain, or elsewhere as well? Especially the last example of giving a command in a threatening tone or in no uncertain terms,- "Ya estás largándote'.. 

I know that in Chile for example, when someone is telling someone to leave, (say, at the end of an argument or unpleasant discussion, especially when they want a person to leave the room/house), it's very common to say "Ya, ¡partiste!" in the preterite.  "You left already'', hahaha, I love it!

¡Hola! Am new here .I have a problem with the placement of 'usted'.For example ¿Usted tiene nietos?and ¿Tiene Usted nietos? Are both of the sentences correct? When or in what context do you use Usted before the verb or after.

¡Hola! Am new here .I have a problem with the placement of 'usted'.For example ¿Usted tiene nietos?and ¿Tiene Usted nietos? Are both of the sentences correct? When or in what context do you use Usted before the verb or after.

Why is it "pero esta muy fría" instead of "pero está muy fría"?  Also, why is it "está protegida" instead of "es protegida"?

Hello,

In the following sentence I expected está, as "but it is very cold".  Have I got this wrong?

"El agua es clara, pero esta muy fría."

Thanks

Could you please explain further why "cuál" is used instead of "qué" in these examples? 

Sample question: "Creo que yo estoy a punto de encontrar la solución." 

Is there a reason the "estoy" isn't subjunctive? If it were "espero que" instead of "creo que" would that matter? 

I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:

1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.

They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.

2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.

Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.

I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation.  However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq).  For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them).  For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon).  I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing.  If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.

Hola,

Una de las personajes del programa española que veo dice lo siguiente:

"A ti se te da muy bien coser."  

¿Qué significa?  En este caso, "te" es un ejemplo del dativo del interés, ¿verdad? ¿A quién es conjugado "darse"? Al final, ¿hay una lección sobre esta construcción?

Muchas gracias

Ella se mudó allí hace dos meses.   Is this correct?  The lesson says we can't use the preterite with hace + time.