Spanish language Q&A Forum

I read the lesson thoroughly, and Silvia’s answer below. I still struggled a bit with thinking about the mood of the sentence being determined by shared/non-shared knowledge or context in the case of a past event. For me, it has been a helpful trigger to think of aunque + indicative as directly translating to “even though”, but the situations that go to subjunctive something more like “while it may ”.  I think this fits with Silvia’s comment that the main point of the phrase is sort of what comes next, the background/shared information is an acknowledgement of context, not the primary statement. Think about our sample phrase: “Sí, pero aunque fuera un éxito, tuvimos que ceder demasiado por nuestra parte. “.  In my mind the approximate translation would be “Yes, while it may have been a success, we had to compromise too much on our side. And, “…might…” makes me think subjunctive. I hope this is accurate, and that it helps someone else.

I understand the lesson, but would you be kind enough to explain if these phrases are interchangeable with words such as "quienquiera" and "dondequiera"?

For example, is  "Sea quien sea el que me ha mandado flores, debe ser un romántico." the same as "Quienquiera sea el que me ha mandado flores, debe ser un romántico."?

I think I understand, but I would appreciate some clarification on this lesson. The way I'm reading this, it seems that if the person or object being referred to is general, then you don't use the "lo/la/los/las" But if it refers to a specific person or object, then you must use them.

For example:
"Has llamado a un doctor?" "No, no he llamado."
but
"Has llamado al doctor / a su doctor?" "No, no lo he llamado."

or
"Tienes dinero para el concierto?" "Si, tengo."
but
"Tienes el dinero que ahorraste para el concierto? "Si, lo tengo."

Am I on the right track?

It would be helpful to see the translation, since there are some words that I do not recognize (and I am too lazy to look them up).

Stewart

I can do the dictation but there are words I don't know the meaning of even if I can write them correctly. In the French version of the course - if you hover the cursor over the word it gives the translation.  Without that I have to go to google translate to get the meaning.  I find this annoying!   Surely the vocabulary should be  available, or the translation without having to find a dictionary or use google translate!?

Now I am confused about the use of Presente de subjuntivo versus futuro. If the condition is presently probable or future probable, then the future is used? If the present condition is unlikely or not probable, then I can use the subjuntivo? So the issue is the certainty or uncertainty of the condition? John will win/John (is certain to win): Juan ganará. I hope that John will win: Espero  que John gane.

I typed in a simple question:  HOW TO FORM IMPERFECT SUBJUNCTIVE and received many pages with endings of imperfect subjunctive and its uses, without once being given the simple method - the stem on which to add endings.  Is this anywhere explained?

Why do you use vosotros for Latin American Spanish?  My understanding is that is more for Spanish in Spain. Also, why do you focus on the alternative endings for the imperfect subjunctive? It seems like it’s focusing on something that is not as common as the other endings?  Can I tailor my quizzes and exercises so that it does not include these?

I'd like more examples of using Todavía no + Pretérito Indefinido = not yet as I am stuck with it. Are there other lessons available.  

The lesson states that "unos" and "unas" are both correct in front of a plural feminine noun beginning with a stressed a. The RAE says it isn't (https://www.rae.es/buen-uso-espa%C3%B1ol/el-art%C3%ADculo-ante-nombres-femeninos-comenzados-por-a-t%C3%B3nica), specifically citing "unos aulas" as incorrect.

It's a minor point, but where is the disconnect? Is the RAE being prescriptive here, or is something else going on?