Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,033 questions • 9,874 answers • 1,021,471 learners
Clever stuff happening!
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,033 questions • 9,874 answers • 1,021,471 learners
Wondering why my answer wasn’t included, to me, it seems it would be more used in LatAm…
Carlos: Without a doubt. Sometimes, we just need to disconnect
Kwizbot's answer:
Carlos: Sin duda alguna. A veces, solo necesitamos desconectar
Your answer:
Carlos: Sin duda. A veces, solo necesitamos desconectarnos
In this exercise deme is written twice with an accent. -Por favor, déme un kilo de pollo....-Sí. También déme un cuarto de kilo de chuletas but according to AI, Real Academia Española (RAE) orthography confirm the following data:
deme (No accent): Correct modern spelling. It is the formal imperative of dar (dé) plus the enclitic pronoun me.
déme (With accent): Incorrect/Obsolete spelling.
Since this response is from AI, which is incorrect 60% of the time, I am not sure which is correct. To accent or not to accent, this is the question. Thank you for your time.
In some regions where English is spoken, they do the same thing. I don't do it, but I've heard people say things like "I'm gonna eat myself a big fat sandwich." This may be helpful for the English speakers who use this to understand the concept.
Why does it seem that everywhere celebrated Mother's Day on a different day?
If one were to say, "I had foreseen that he would come", which of these is more appropriate: "Yo había previsto que " + "iba a venir" / "vendría" / "viniera"? Can the subjunctive be used with prever like this?
Gracias.
When do I know that it is in a sentence ''there is'' and ''there are''?
At a general level, should I expect that the Ustedes form of a conjugation will be identical to the Ellos/Ellas forms in Latam conjugation? Can I expect this similarity to only apply to certain tenses?
The question was Es la _________________vez que onto a caballo. Since caballo is masculine I chose segundo but I that is wrong. Why is is segunda? Thank you
Is "Luis se comió el pastel" the same as "Luis comió todo el pastel", which would just be a crude translation of english?
Presumably "Luis se comió todo el pastel" would be just repetition?
Would "Luis comió el pastel"? allow that he may only have eaten some of it.
"Luis se comió pastel" maybe does not make sense?
I’m assuming en vez de can’t be used in the same way as por because there is a sense of obligation on behalf of the subject when using por? Yo tomé el carro en vez del autobús. Using por here would be wrong. Yo hice el trabajo por él porque estaba enfermo. En vez de here, would be wrong, right?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level