Spanish language Q&A Forum

Very often in Spanish you see statements expressed both with or without the reflexive particle. Is there a difference in nuance?, I am wondering. For example, comí la torta vs. me comí la torta; murío mi mamá el año pasado vs. se murío mi mamá el año pasado...etc., etc. Is this discussed anywhere?

I asked about the carne because I see it's being used as card in this passage, carne de conducir for example.

I understand that when "tal vez" and "quizas" are used, they can be followed by either subjunctive or indicative mood.  But "a lo mejor" only accepts indicative mood.  And, since "tal vez", "quizas", and "a lo mejor" can all be translated as "maybe" in English, this creates some confusion for English speakers.  My question is this: even though they are all tranlated as "maybe" in english, does the phrase "a lo mejor" convey less doubt/uncertainty than "tal vez/quizas" in spanish?

Por qué hay una coma entre y otra coma después de ?

Some of the English answers in this exercise use the past tense in English, and some use the past perfect tense, por ejemplo:

We hope that you HAVE finished it on time.  NOT We hope that you finished it on time.  

I hope that you booked the restaurant in advance.  NOT I hope that you HAVE booked the restaurant in advance. 

In English, there may be very little difference, if any, in the meaning of the sentence, but I wonder why in some examples, "have" is used and in others, it is omitted.

Dear Inma,

What is the reason for having the part "De tanto/tan poco que/como + indicative" instead of "De tanto que/como + indicative" with "De tan poco que/como + indicative" being covered in the previous part "De tan+ adjective/adverb + que/como + indicative"?

Best regards, Janusz

(in order) to direct the water into the tank    is tranlated as    para dirigir el agua hacia el tanque

I always thought that hacia was more towards and not necessarily entering.  The lesson on hacia doesn't show entering.

For example, how could I distinguish between 'I walked towards the tunnel' and 'I walked into the tunnel' ?

Gracias

Hello.  The following example in this lesson threw me off:  "After the party we will call a taxi" (Despues de fiesta llamamos un taxi).  My question is why was the present tense ("llamamos"), and not the future tense ("llamaremos"), used here?  My guess is that the future time is very short (i.e., right after the party).  If this is correct, is there a general rule for a given time frame that would require use of the future tense?  Thank you for any clarification.

Hola - if the answer to the question is 1, would the ‘ser’ variant be ‘es’? Gracias!

The above hint is given for this exercise, but what is the "EN phrase order"? - I've tried searching for this but I can't find anything.