Q&A Forum

Hola,

In a Spanish show, a character says to another:

Tú no sales de aquí hasta que no me traigas a ese chico.

Which I believe roughly translates to "You are not to go out until you bring this guy to me."  If that is the case, could you explain why the subordinate sentence would be negated with no.  Wouldn't it be:

Tú no sales de aquí hasta que me traigas a ese chico.

Thank you for your help!

Hello, like many people I struggle between choosing the imperfect or indefinido tense.

In this exercise, the sentence below was correct,

"pero ayer el guiso de mamá tenía carne,"

Please would you help me understand why the imperfect tense is correct, I had understood that the use of a time clause "ayer" would have made it indefinido.

Thanks

Can anyone explain why the following answer options are all punctuated with a semicolon?  Is this the correct use of a semicolon in Spanish?  In English, it would be a comma instead of a semicolon.

Hi there, I love the summer too, but I'll need a little help with the word "Allá" please.

One of the answers given in this test was "y suelo ir allá mucho", the suggestes lesson for this part of the quiz was aqui, ahi & alli, but not sign of allá...  I'm wondering if allá is so far away we can't even see it :-)

Please would you help?

In this context, lesson, it sounds like cada is specifically for "each".    

With some other translation tools, cada also appears in the context of "every" ..   although todos could be used instead.

"... contemplaría llover intensamente" is an interesting semantic construction - not immediately intuitive to a native English speaker. However, it is consistent with the fact that Spanish often tends to use an infinitive to translate a gerund or a noun in English: [you do have at least one exercise illustrating this point, I believe].  

Why are we using pues instead of porque in the first sentence to say because?

I could not find any explanation regarding the modes. thank you