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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,006 questions • 9,818 answers • 1,012,000 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,006 questions • 9,818 answers • 1,012,000 learners
Small clarification: does cocer actually mean "to boil"?
I thought it meant to cook in a hot water, not exactly "boil".
If I am wrong then how is it different from hervir?
Thank you in advance.
Does using the accidental se structure require the use of the perfect tense [haber (conjugated to item forgotten)+ past participle "olvidado"] or can I use the preterite (indefinido) also?
For example:
Perfect -> Se me ha olvidado la toalla.
Preterite -> Se me olvidó la toalla.
Sounds weird, but just asking for clarification since I didn't see any discussion of specifically using the HABER + Olvidado structure.
Cheers!
My old teacher used to insist that I write down every doubt I had
Mi antiguo profesor insistía en que apuntara todas las dudas que tenía.
In the correction given to me the answer was 'las dudas que tuviera'
I see why apuntara is subjunctive but my doubt is 'tenía or tuviera' ?
Gracias
Wondering why my answer wasn’t included, to me, it seems it would be more used in LatAm…
Carlos: Without a doubt. Sometimes, we just need to disconnect
Kwizbot's answer:
Carlos: Sin duda alguna. A veces, solo necesitamos desconectar
Your answer:
Carlos: Sin duda. A veces, solo necesitamos desconectarnos
In this exercise deme is written twice with an accent. -Por favor, déme un kilo de pollo....-Sí. También déme un cuarto de kilo de chuletas but according to AI, Real Academia Española (RAE) orthography confirm the following data:
deme (No accent): Correct modern spelling. It is the formal imperative of dar (dé) plus the enclitic pronoun me.
déme (With accent): Incorrect/Obsolete spelling.
Since this response is from AI, which is incorrect 60% of the time, I am not sure which is correct. To accent or not to accent, this is the question. Thank you for your time.
In some regions where English is spoken, they do the same thing. I don't do it, but I've heard people say things like "I'm gonna eat myself a big fat sandwich." This may be helpful for the English speakers who use this to understand the concept.
Why does it seem that everywhere celebrated Mother's Day on a different day?
If one were to say, "I had foreseen that he would come", which of these is more appropriate: "Yo había previsto que " + "iba a venir" / "vendría" / "viniera"? Can the subjunctive be used with prever like this?
Gracias.
When do I know that it is in a sentence ''there is'' and ''there are''?
At a general level, should I expect that the Ustedes form of a conjugation will be identical to the Ellos/Ellas forms in Latam conjugation? Can I expect this similarity to only apply to certain tenses?
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