Spanish language Q&A Forum

hi room and experts

Please clarify why 'tener  + participio cases' must have agreement in gender and number with the noun acting as a direct object,  whereas  this rule does not apply in  'haber + participio cases'

For example  -  Tienes ya pensada la estrategia para convencer a Inés? - (show agreement)

He pintado dos habitaciones. (does not show agreement)

What prepositions can be used with creer and how do they change the meaning.

Creer en/a ...

Hola Inma,

"Cuando le conocí", is this a case of leísmo?. 

My answer was lo conocí and it's been marked wrong.

Could you, please, explain?

Saludos

Ελισάβετ

Why is it "El cartero pasa todos los días a las tres de la tarde" instead of ""El cartero pasa todos los días a las tres por la tarde"? I thought we learned that it should be en, a, or por to express a specific time of the day? 

Why does the accent change from comprárselos to cómpreselos depending on the conjugation? Does the stressed syllable always change in the imperative form? 

Why is it “mucha” not “mucho”? Is it because it modifies Coca Cola?

I struggle with translating "the weather is very good." My inclination is to write "el tiempo está muy bueno," because it is acceptable to use está for some weather related expressions per your very helpful guidelines.

Is there any 100% reliable way that you can suggest for when to use hace vs está. Is it a matter of learning off these phrases / expressions and that they are invariable? Is anything to do with "temperature, cold, hot and weather" always expressed using hace?

Finally if I wanted to say "In Rome, there is good weather today." Could I say "En Roma hay buen tiempo hoy?" or  is this invariably expressed using hace?" Thanks John