translation - meaning of exampleA su vecino le robaron la moto el otro día.
(Le) robaron la moto el otro día a su vecino.
They stole his neighbour's bike the other day.
My brain wants to translate this as:
The other day they stole the bike for his neighbor. (su=his, her, your, its, their)
My point being that I think of the indirect object pronoun (le) as to/for him/her your/it
The word "for" being the key point that confuses me in this case, I would guess.
I would think the sentence would use "de" and be "Robaron el moto el otro día de su vecino." and not have the indirect object pronoun.
Help please!
hi room and experts
Please clarify why 'tener + participio cases' must have agreement in gender and number with the noun acting as a direct object, whereas this rule does not apply in 'haber + participio cases'
For example - Tienes ya pensada la estrategia para convencer a Inés? - (show agreement)
He pintado dos habitaciones. (does not show agreement)
Hola Inma,
Me muy alegro que tú eres mi profesora. Me estoy divirtiendo mucho todas las noches pero el nivel b2 no es muy fácil especialmente con respecto al modo subjuntivo. Mi progreso es mucho más lenta que antes.
Gracias, James
[A comment, not really a question]: It is interesting that you are using the infinitive construction here after "recomendar": "...nos han recomendado poner suelo de madera"; (instead, I put: "han recomendado que pongamos suelo de madera"). My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin - admittedly an oldish, 2004 edition) discusses the well known rule: "Use the subjunctive when there is a change of subject between the two portions of the sentence" - and it lists verbs which are exceptions. 'Recomendar' is not actually given as a clear-cut exception, but the book says that this verb is in a transitional state - where the infinitive construction is "slowly creeping into" written Spanish. It adds that it would be better for non-Spaniards to stick with the subjunctive in these particular circumstances, just to be sure..... I am sure you do have a lesson on this specific point; I look forward to seeing what it says about various verbs.
In the quiz question: "Todos los estudiantes son estadounidenses ________. All the students are from the United States except us." the question refuses any answer with "nosotras". Surely "nosotras" should be as equally possible as "nosotros" in this response, or am I misunderstanding?
A su vecino le robaron la moto el otro día.
(Le) robaron la moto el otro día a su vecino.
They stole his neighbour's bike the other day.
My brain wants to translate this as:
The other day they stole the bike for his neighbor. (su=his, her, your, its, their)
My point being that I think of the indirect object pronoun (le) as to/for him/her your/it
The word "for" being the key point that confuses me in this case, I would guess.
I would think the sentence would use "de" and be "Robaron el moto el otro día de su vecino." and not have the indirect object pronoun.
Help please!
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