Spanish language Q&A Forum

It seems like many of these questions can be interpreted either way. In English, the two are often interchangeable in a given sentence depending what the speaker wishes to say. Although we have many things in common... OR Even if we have many things in common...

How do we know which translation to provide--subjunctive or indicative?

My question isn't about demonstrative pronouns but it's in relation to the translation of one of the example sentences describing their usage. 

In the 3rd example sentence which reads, 'Las faldas en esta tienda son bonitas' the English translation given is, 'They have nice skirts in this shop'. I thought that this would translate as, 'The skirts in this shop are nice'. The translation given would be 'Tienen faldas bonitas en esta tienda' in Spanish wouldn't it'? Is it an error here Inma or does it not have to be literal translation?

Gracias

Clara 

Is there any difference in meaning between “puede que”  and “tal vez” or “quizás” or are they essentially the same?

Graciás

Jamie

Hola,

Is Ver "regular" if the accents are missing on the first and third persons singular conjugations?

Regards

John

Just a comment.  I think this subject is difficult without making the English incorrect.  It becomes much more understandable when the translation is made using correct English.  Some examples:

¿A quién le enviaste la carta?
Who did you send the letter to?
The English should be:   To whom did you send the letter?

¿Para quién has comprado esas flores tan bonitas?
Who have you bought such pretty flowers for?
The English should be:   For whom have you bought such pretty flowers?

¿Con quiénes vais de vacaciones?
Who are you going on holiday with?
The English should be:   With whom are you going on holiday?

¿Por quién harías una locura?
Who would you do something crazy for?
The English should be:   For whom would you do something crazy?

This does not include all the examples, but it is enough to see the problem.

I don't understand the difference between hubo and habia. They seem to mean the same thing. What is the difference between them and when do you use one as opposed to the other.