translation - meaning of exampleA su vecino le robaron la moto el otro día.
(Le) robaron la moto el otro día a su vecino.
They stole his neighbour's bike the other day.
My brain wants to translate this as:
The other day they stole the bike for his neighbor. (su=his, her, your, its, their)
My point being that I think of the indirect object pronoun (le) as to/for him/her your/it
The word "for" being the key point that confuses me in this case, I would guess.
I would think the sentence would use "de" and be "Robaron el moto el otro día de su vecino." and not have the indirect object pronoun.
Help please!
Hola a todos
I just found this sentence on Kwiziq:
'He estado de viaje y me ha encantado todo'
So, with de I guess roughly this means 'I have been doing travelling'
But please can someone explain...
1) The differences between using 'he estado de viajar' vs 'he estado viajando'?
2) And can we use 'he estado de +infinitive' with all verbs?
Saludos
A su vecino le robaron la moto el otro día.
(Le) robaron la moto el otro día a su vecino.
They stole his neighbour's bike the other day.
My brain wants to translate this as:
The other day they stole the bike for his neighbor. (su=his, her, your, its, their)
My point being that I think of the indirect object pronoun (le) as to/for him/her your/it
The word "for" being the key point that confuses me in this case, I would guess.
I would think the sentence would use "de" and be "Robaron el moto el otro día de su vecino." and not have the indirect object pronoun.
Help please!
"Cuál es" works just fine in Mexico to ask "what is". Just because you haven't introduced it in the lesson yet shouldn't make it wrong. The problem with learning formal speech is that nobody talks like this in every day Life. People don't speak proper English in America, and they don't in Latin America either. The same with "me llamó" v "llamó" In Mexico they don't always say me llamó José, just llamó José. Both are right, they know what I'm saying. I want to learn both proper and common speech. Just learning the proper leads to a lot of confusion when you get to where you're going. Nobody talks completely proper, in fact English is so infused with Spanish, they have many made up spanglish words. When you go into a local neighborhood if you speak proper they don't know what you're saying. Really! No one says como se llama usted, me llamo José. They just stare at you like you're a snob.
Lo siento por la novela
Mujer trabajadora - hombre perezoso, pareja dispareja. Una relación que terminará rápidamente
What's difference between 2 words in term of meaning and usage?
What prepositions can be used with creer and how do they change the meaning.
Creer en/a ...
Why does the affirmative phrase use "tener celos" while the negative phrase uses "ser celosa"?Yo creo que Marta tiene celos.
Yo no creo que María sea celosa.I think Marta is jealous.
I don't think María is jealous.
Thanks!
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