Spanish language Q&A Forum

Is there a rule that explains why the definite articles aren’t needed here even though mujeres and hombres are the subjects of the sentence?

I've read the answers below, but there are still instances where I'm confused. For example, the test answers say that "Lo están llamando" is the correct translation of "They're calling him." However, I think I saw "They're writing him" translated as "Le están escribiendo." Both take the preposition "a" when the person being called or written is named, and both can use the preposition "to" in English. How is it possible to know that llamar takes a direct object, while escribir takes an indirect object? 

Please delete! This one was written in error!

Please delete! This one was written in error!

Hi there Inma,

would you say that this structure is more formal than 'mientras' ?

Espero que todo vaya bien contigo,

G.

Ellas suelen ir al cine los viernes

Usually we use Ellas van, how about this Ellas suelen ir? May I know what is this ir in this case. 

Hola Inma,

Me gustan mucho tus explicaciones y ejemplos.

Podrías quizás también explicar el uso de volverse?

Saludos,

Eva