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6,018 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,896 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,018 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,896 learners
Which tenses do these 3 forms represent? I suppose one is the usual conditional tense
I'm new. I'm a beginner and wish to learn Castilian Spanish (including the pronunciation). I just took the first lesson (above). It has "confirm" buttons after all the lines, but they all lead to an error message. And I took the "test" but it was only two questions. What is going on? Seriously, a test with only two questions? And what are the non-functional "confirm" buttons even for? Oh, and the pronunciation does NOT use Castilian Spanish in the examples where I paid attention for that.
It seems as if porque would convey the same idea and is probably more often used in conversation. So is de tanto more formal, literary or is it used in the street?
in the text...
´Me ha invitado al teatro varias veces, y se ha ofrecido a pagar para los dos.... ´
Question is.... Is ´se ha ofrecido´ a typo of ´me ha ofrecido´?
gracias de antemano
I incorrectly answered "para" because there was a specific time of day in the sentence. I am thinking that was not correct if this translates (loosely) as "sometime in the morning I eat breakfast at 9am". So a/en/por would be correct for this?
I think at first boyfriend. ... lol both muy and mucha in same sentence. I like that.
Hello Kwiziq team .
I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.
1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo
2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.
Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.
Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts
Self grading has no importance to me. It is cumbersome to have to click an emoji just so I can continue with the test. Please make it optional.
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