Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,812 questions • 9,511 answers • 951,955 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,812 questions • 9,511 answers • 951,955 learners
One of hints is to "use the EN phrase order". What does that mean?
For this question:
"El guiso solo necesita una pizca de sal. No pongas ____ "
I couldn't decide whether it should be "tantas" or "tanta" because it wasn't clear to me at all whether the pronoun is referring to "una pizca" or "sal". If I recall correctly I put "tantas", attempting to agree with "una pizca" but it was the wrong answer. Is it possible that both might be acceptable in real world speech because of that ambiguity, or am I missing some clear difference?
(e.g. in English "This stew only needs one pinch of salt. Don't put too many" would sound a bit wrong, but technically would be correct for the same reason, in my opinion. Of course you'd usually hear "This stew only needs *a* pinch of salt. Don't put too much.". While salt is an uncountable noun (in most contexts), "pinch" is, of course, not!)
i am confused. there is another lesson that uses deber in perfect tense and deber in present + haber to indicate assumption that something must have happened that is expressed by the main verb as infinitive or past participle. This lesson seems to be speaking of the same thing until the last part that says
Eso debe de haber caducado hace tiempo
That must have expired some time agoI am confused by this 2 very similar lessons. may you point out the differences to me?
how do I use such structure to say something must had been done as in an assumption in the past?
I think the translation should be three thirty no half three.
¿Ha oído o visto usted "Use your spanish", "why not spanish" y "SpanishLand school" en YouTube? Todos esos YouTubers son de Colombia y ellos hablan español bellamente como música legato. Para mi, hablar español con acento no significa la voz profesional regional, sólo la voz regional.
I am having trouble understanding the difference between "perderse" and "perder" in the context of missing an opportunity. For example, if you were talking to someone about not coming to a move with you, could you say "perdiste la oportunidad de ver la pelicula"? Could you also say "te perdiste la pelicula"? Would both of these be correct?
Is this use of ~Lo + Possessive Pronoun~ "To talk about minding one's own business," more akin to entrometido o metiche instead of "talking about one's own interests (which seems more relevant to the section antecedent: la pintura no es lo mio)? Thank you.
If there were already influencers of all kinds on the networks, athleisure was not going to be an exception.
I am struggling to understand the meaning of this sentence. Is it talking about a hypothetical or real situation?
The best answer is given as:
Si ya había influencers de todo tipo en las redes,
Why is it not hubiera?
Gracias
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level