Spanish language Q&A Forum

No se entra simplemente en Mordor.

I think my translation of Boromir's famous line is probably ok, but  whether any Spanish speakers talk like that might be a question.

Why we use here word "tenía" and not "tuve" when we talking about ayer?

Which tenses do these 3 forms represent? I suppose one is the usual conditional tense

I answered a question with Ustedes se curan and it was marked wrong.  The correct answer was se curan without the ustedes.  I don't understand why both answers aren't correct. In the conjugation table you have the option to use or not use the pronoun.

Me ___ viajar gustan gusta gustamos gusto

HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book  for example - el pez numero catource-

1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---

      Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?

2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--

    Why not: se lo limita a mirar?

What is this type of construction called?

Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?

How common is it? I don't see it very often.

Thanks a lot

Perhaps it would be helpful with these various stem changing verb lessons to explain more clearly that the vowel changes only affect the vowels when they are in syllables that are stressed, rather than giving the impression that the nosotros/as and vosotras/os forms are just arbitrary exceptions. I think that grasping that makes it a lot easier to internalize the pattern than just trying to memorize exceptions without understanding why they work that way. 

Why is “I feel like an idiot dressed up like a clown” reflexive? Idiot is a noun. I had this question on a quiz. 

thank you for this article. I learned many new things.