th difference between hace -v- desde haceA valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
why don´t we use the preterite imperfect or preterite, as the event has happened already in the past and the preterite perfect gives some sense that it is still continuing?
Hi, I am trying to understand this lesson, and am confused by the two examples shown.
Why on the second example you put (accidentally) but not on the first example?
A Juan se le olvidó traer el hielo.
Juan forgot to bring the ice.A Juan se le olvidó traer cervezas.Juan [accidentally] forgot to bring beersI understand that third person singular is used for both, and thought both examples are ‘accidental’ hence using SE.
Thanks
Should la mayoría be followed by son? La mayoría isnt plural.
How is the answer un poco mas and not case ti metiste? I asked my peruvian friend and she thought it was also the second. It's past tense i'm confused
Hi Kwiziq Spanish learners,
I am new on Kwiziq and I already realize the strenght of Kwiziq and it's system. However, as a beginner, it is not 100% clear how does on study on Kwiziq. I get the recommended lesson and each % confidence level for each topic. But does one really have to add the recommended topics to a "notebook" in order to reach over 50% confidence level? Wouldn't it make more sense to have more exercises on a grammar topic within the "recommended" topic?
A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
What about using an article in front of being a stay at home parent? Soy madre. Soy padre. Is there an equivalent of this in the Spanish language?
I am looking for a trough explanations on when to use razon de vs razon para. No where on line or in garmmar books is there a good explanation or multiple examples.
I missed “que” in my comment below. Shirley.
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