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6,118 questions • 10,018 answers • 1,054,175 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,118 questions • 10,018 answers • 1,054,175 learners
I'm confused by the title of this article: "personal "a" verbs". Isn't the issue whether the direct object is a person or not, rather than the verb used? In addition to the verbs mentioned, isn't the same true of all the verbs on https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/learn/theme/830919 as well as necesitar, golpear, ... indeed any transitive verb?
Suppose we want to say that a price has gone up from 20 pesos to 30 pesos. Could we say:
El precio ha aumentado de 20 pesos a 30 pesos.
El precio ha aumentado desde 20 pesos hasta 30 pesos.
Would either or both these statements be correct?
Thanks.
Me parece bastante torpe el uso de lo porque sabemos el sujeto. No deja de mostrar que esta institución como la que era, extraordinariamente cruel. (la institución es el sujeto). 😀
In this exercise the preterit 3rd person singular of "creer" is shown as "crió" whereas in my other Spanish dictionaries it is shown as "creció". Is the former conjugation specific to Latin America whilst the latter (creció) is specific to Spain?
Upon clicking on the lesson, I see this warning, "Note that this is a Europe focused lesson. Your active focus is Latin America.' .... how are weather talks different in Latin America?
Would it be "Ella estuvo" here if we add a specific time like "Ella estuvo lavándose el pelo de 8 a la 8:30" ?
Also, we would appreciate the El indefinido progresivo examples with all pronouns as just having 3 is not enough to remember the conjugations.
What is Tengo's exact meaning.
De lejos, habria es actual en inglais. pero me cuento que utilizo habre.
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
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