Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,019 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,015,067 learners
I'll be right with you...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,019 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,015,067 learners
For this question:
"El guiso solo necesita una pizca de sal. No pongas ____ "
I couldn't decide whether it should be "tantas" or "tanta" because it wasn't clear to me at all whether the pronoun is referring to "una pizca" or "sal". If I recall correctly I put "tantas", attempting to agree with "una pizca" but it was the wrong answer. Is it possible that both might be acceptable in real world speech because of that ambiguity, or am I missing some clear difference?
(e.g. in English "This stew only needs one pinch of salt. Don't put too many" would sound a bit wrong, but technically would be correct for the same reason, in my opinion. Of course you'd usually hear "This stew only needs *a* pinch of salt. Don't put too much.". While salt is an uncountable noun (in most contexts), "pinch" is, of course, not!)
There are a number of good questions below about the use of the preterite vs the imperfect. There is some confusion about the speaker choosing to bend the rules in order to express an action in a certain way. This is a very useful topic and might be a good lesson of its own, "When the speaker bends the rules for a specific reason".
De quién was an option for this question:
Mi perro, ________ me acuerdo a menudo, ha muerto recientemente.
However when I selected it I was marked wrong.
However according to this page
Using preposition a and de + el que, la que, los que, las que = to/of/from/about which/who (relative pronouns)
Should I have been marked right because quién doesn't necessarily need to pair with a lo/la?
Suppose we want to say that a price has gone up from 20 pesos to 30 pesos. Could we say:
El precio ha aumentado de 20 pesos a 30 pesos.
El precio ha aumentado desde 20 pesos hasta 30 pesos.
Would either or both these statements be correct?
Thanks.
It is not intended, is it, that the second Example and Resource sentence above, "Vienen para solucionar el problema." is not translated into English?
What is the indirect object pronoun for
A Javier ya a Sara ____
Hola!
I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around the purpose of doubling down on the indirect object usage in some of these examples:
"Ella le envió un regalo a Miguel.
She sent a present to Miguel."
In this example, why do you need the le if you already have Miguel. It reads to me literally as "she him sent a present to Miguel" and I suppose it feels like excessive and unnecessary additional language in an already clear sentence. Is it for emphasis? Por favor ayúdame a entender.
Hola Team Kwiziq,
Is it incorrect to place the No in a No...nunca construction before the pronoun? I notice that one can say "No comes chocolate nunca" which made me believe that the no is always at the beginning of the sentence.
However "No nostotros te mentiríamos nunca" was incorrect and so was "No él estuvo intersesado". I am guessing that no can be in front of a verb where the pronoun is implied (comes) but not in front of an explicit subject pronoun (tú comes). Is this correct? Can you elaborate?
All the examples have nouns of the same gender/number on both ends of the sentence. What if it was "Maria es igual de alt_ que los gemelos"? Is it "alta" because Maria, or is "altos" because "los gemelos"?
Can:
"Mi madre, esa mujer me la recuerda."
mean either one:
"Esa mujer me recuerda a mi madre." (similar)
"Esa mujer me recuerda mi madre." (brought to mind)
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level