Spanish language Q&A Forum

I can't speak for Europe or Australia but I can tell you that in the U.S. no one is ever going to say, "We've seen the singer sign autographs to the fans." The correct construction for this verb is to sign autographs FOR fans...not to the fans. If I heard someone say  this I would assume they were not a native speaker of English. 

Suppose we want to say that a price has gone up from 20 pesos to 30 pesos.  Could we say:

El precio ha aumentado de 20 pesos a 30 pesos.

El precio ha aumentado desde 20 pesos hasta 30 pesos.

Would either or both these statements be correct?

Thanks.

Hola Inma,

You write:

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With "acordarse" we can't use "lo". You can use it with "recordar" though:

Yo no lo recuerdo. 

With acordarse you can say: 

Yo no me acuerdo de eso.

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Is the following incorrect:

Yo no me lo acuerdo. 

Would a better translation be "it would be good if the bank gave us the loan" ?

hi,

i would like to clarify a few questions.

Este día tan especial = This special day - why do we use ´tan´?

el día siguiente = the following day - i might have mistaken, but i thought ´siguiente´ is to be placed before the noun ´día´?

One of the examples is:

Su actitud se volvió violenta de repente.

Is it correct to assume that the change is a lasting one, as with someone who got hit on the head with a shovel and after that was a violent person?

Compared to:

Su actitud se puso violenta de repente.

In this case, cowboys in a saloon in a Western movie insult someone and he stands up quickly and draws his gun?

Just want to double check that these differences are correct.  Thanks.

Does «media naranja» (soulmate) literally mean "orange sock"? How did this term for "soulmate" develop in Spanish culture?

I missed “que” in my comment below. Shirley. 

No entiendo por qué la traducción de "por los propios festeros" será "by party-goers themselves"

"festero" significa "party-goer"??

In the beginning of the story, using present perfect was clear because she is saying that her best friend has come to visit.  Afterwards, when she is narrating what they did each day, we have specific time (the day mentioned) and what they did which to me seems to be how we use preterite for a specific time (day) in the past, so it is confusing to see present perfect for specific time events in the past.  Can you please explain why you continued to use pr. perfect and did not switch to another tense. To me (the "has come" in the beginning) would have been more appropriate with what they are going to do in the future since she mentions that "they have made tons on plans."