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5,779 questions • 9,440 answers • 940,398 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,779 questions • 9,440 answers • 940,398 learners
Would "no ha" be better thought of as "has not" instead of "didn't?" I don't know what the grammatical difference is between the two, or if one exists.
Please add “los anocheceres” to the lesson as an exception.
Only “Los amaneceres” is mentioned.
The test question "I always wanted to be a dentist." I answered "he querido" but correct answer was "quise"
Isn't that a past action that continues into the present? - perfecto?
Anyway this particular topic seems to be all over the place. The goal of these questions shouldn't be trickery IMHO. We're learning to speak a language - not to be a textbook scholar - or at least that's my goal. I asked one of the many Spanish speakers where I work what they thought and they said "it could be either and I'd understand you."
In the quiz, the sentence was "When I go to Spain, I always go to the beach". - "___________ voy a Espana, siempre voy a la playa"
The answer is "Cuando" without an accent. In the lesson, it says that cuando without an accent is a relative adverb which introduces a depennt clause. In the above example, what is the dependent clause that "cuando" is introducing? I am not a gramarian, but it seems like both of the above clauses are independent. That may be incorrect, but could you please explain?
Why was "partido" (for "game") the correct usage in the first part of the last sentence, but then "juego" (for "game") was correct in the latter part of that same sentence?
Pati Ecuamiga
Is there a lesson or a table on conjugating these? Especially Traer could use some illumination in this regard, I don't recall seeing the kinds of conjugation as shown in the examples for traer. Thanks.
Hello! I wrote "lo pasarán bien" instead of "se divertirán mucho" and I believe the feedback advised me to use the verb in the reflexive form ("se lo pararán bien"). In the past, I had encountered "pasarlo bien" as meaning "to have a good time" without using "se." Can you please clarify? Thanks so much.
The above is an A2 question and the expected answer is te however no guidance is given that a singular informal tense is to be used.
Couldn't le, les or os also be used here if no further context is given.
It took me three times reading this before I got the real drift of the story. Very funny LOL. Necesitamos más colas sutiles como esta para que la cuenta no menee al perro.
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